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Here's my attempt, would this be considered a valid proof?

Proof by contradiction: Assume m and n are both odd integers and the equation $\:x^2\:+\:mx+n\:=\:0$ has a rational root.

  • m = $2t+1$ (for some $t\in \mathbb{Z}$)
  • n = $2s+1$ (for some $s\in \mathbb{Z}$)

Rewrite equation: $x^2+\left(2t+1\right)x+\left(2s+1\right)=0$

Solve for $t$: $t=\frac{-x^2-2s-1-x}{2x};\quad \:x\ne \:0$

Solve for $s$: $s=\frac{-x^2-2xt-x-1}{2}$

From this it is clear that $t \notin \mathbb{Z} $ and $s \notin \mathbb{Z}$ and so $m$ and $n$ are also $\notin \mathbb{Z}$.

This shows that for the equation to have a rational root, if m and n are odd, they both cannot be integers.

And so, if $m\in \mathbb{Z}$ and $n\in \mathbb{Z}$, they both CANNOT be odd, as required.

$∎$

RAHUL
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3 Answers3

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If $x^2+mx+n$ has a rational root, then both roots are rational. So multiplying by the least common multiple of the denominators we have an equation with integer coefficients where even the roots maintain the same relationship with the coefficients. Suppose the roots of this new equation are the integers $-a$ and $-b$ such that $m=a+b$ and $n=ab$.

Suppose both $m$ and $n$ are odd. Hence $ab=n=odd$, which implies that $a$ and $b$ are odd, that is $a=2\tilde{a}+1$ and $b=2\tilde{b}+1$ for some $\tilde{a},\tilde{b}\in\mathbb Z$. Thus $$\underbrace{m}_{odd}=a+b=\underbrace{2(\tilde{a}+\tilde{b}+1)}_{even}.$$

Hence, $m$ and $n$ cannot be odd at the same time.

Zaragosa
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"From this it is clear that ..." - even if it was true up to this point, $t$ and $s$ could be fractions with denominator $2$ and $m=2t+1$, $n=2s+1$ would still be integers.

Instead, let's assume $m,n$ are odd and consider the quadratic formula,

$$ x=\frac{-m\pm \sqrt{m^2-4n}}{2}$$

If one root is rational then $m^2-4n$ is a square number, $k^2$, and in fact both roots are rational. We know $m$ is odd and $4n$ is even, so $m^2-4n=k^2$ is odd and thus $k$ is odd (an even number squared is even, but an odd number squared is odd).

Consider the difference between two arbitrary odd square numbers, $(2a+1)^2$ and $(2b+1)^2$. Is this difference even or odd? What contradiction does this give us?


EDIT:

The difference between two odd square numbers, $(2a+1)^2$ and $(2b+1)^2$, is:

$$ (2b+1)^2-(2a+1)^2\\ =4b^2+4b+1-(4a^2+4a+1)\\ = 4(b^2+b-(a^2+a))$$

$b^2$ is the same parity as $b$ so $b^2+b$ is even. Identically, $a^2+a$ is even and $b^2+b-(a^2+a)$, the difference of two even numbers, is even.

Thus, the difference between any two odd square numbers, $4(b^2+b-(a^2+a))$, is always a multiple of $8$ (it is $4$ times some even number).

Back to our values $m,n$, we know that $m^2-4n=k^2$, where $m,k$ are odd integers - that is, the difference between two odd square numbers is $4n$ (by rearranging, $m^2-k^2=4n$). We have just proved that $m^2-k^2$ must be a multiple of $8$ i.e. that $4n$ is a multiple of $8$, which means that $n$ is even.

But we assumed that $n$ is odd, so this is a contradiction. Hence, $m$ and $n$ cannot both be odd.

A.M.
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  • I'm confused. How do you know that if one root is rational then $m^2 - 4n$ is a square number? @A.M. – someman112 Oct 26 '21 at 23:08
  • To answer your question, the difference would be even. Because if you evaluate $(2a+1)^2 - (2b+1)^2$ you get $4a^2+4a-4b^2-4b$. Factor out 4 you get $4\left(a^2+a-b^2-b\right)$. Any number multiplied by 4 is divisible by 2, hence the difference is even. – someman112 Oct 26 '21 at 23:13
  • I partially understand what you've written (or at least I think I do). Considering that $k^2$ and $k$ are odd. It would make sense that $m-4n$ cannot be odd since 'odd - odd = even' Therefore, a contradiction. But what I don't understand is that how you know one root is rational means $m^2 - 4n = k^2$ and how you know that $k^2$ and $k$ are odd numbers. – someman112 Oct 26 '21 at 23:24
  • @Yaya123 you've got the hint, but you need to go a bit further than I originally thought to get the contradiction. If the difference between two odd square numbers is $4(a^2+a-b^2-b)$ then we can actually tell that it is a multiple of 8, by showing that $a^2+a-b^2-b$ is even. Then, we compare this to $m^2-4n=k^2$ and see that $n$ must be even (so $4n$ is a multiple of $8$), a contradiction. – A.M. Oct 27 '21 at 11:59
  • The remaining gaps in your understanding, then, are: if you take the square root of something that's not a square number then you get an irrational number, and if you square root a square number you get a whole number (i.e. a rational number). So the thing under the square root, $m^2-4n$, must be some square number, $k^2$. Then, $m^2$ is odd and $4n$ is even, so $m^2-4n=k^2$ is (odd-even=)odd. If $k^2$ is odd then $k$ is odd ($k$ can't be even because an even number squared is even). And finally, how can you show $a^2+a-(b^2+b)$ is even? (Hint: split it into cases.) – A.M. Oct 27 '21 at 12:02
  • $a^2+a$ and $b^2+b$ will always yield the same parity. This is because $a^2$ will have the same parity as $a$ and $b^2$ will have the same parity as $b$. Given this, $a^2+a$ will always be even and $b^2+b$ will always be even as well. This is always result in even - even which will always be even. – someman112 Oct 27 '21 at 17:41
  • I'm sorry I'm asking so many questions, but how does this all prove that 4n has to be even? – someman112 Oct 27 '21 at 17:44
  • @Yaya123 not at all, you've got all the steps, you just need to piece them together. I've expanded my answer a bit with the full proof. – A.M. Oct 27 '21 at 19:54
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As noted in the comments and other answer, the proof is not valid. Here is an partial alternative that uses the rational roots theorem:

Suppose, to the contrary, that both $n$ and $m$ are odd. Let $a_1, a_2, \dots, a_k$ be all of the factors of $n$. Note that $a_i$ must be odd for all $i=1,2,\dots, k$. Then, by the rational root theorem, $a_1, a_2, \dots, a_k$ are all of the possible rational roots of our quadratic, so it turns out that if a root is rational, then it is an integer. Since one of the roots are indeed rational, there exists $j\in\{1,2,\dots,k\}$ such that $a_j^2+ma_j+n=0$. Solving for $n$ gives us $n=-a_j^2-ma_j$. Can you find why this results in a contradiction?

Bonnaduck
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  • Unfortunately, I haven't learned the rational roots theorem in my class yet. So I'm not sure if I would be able to use it on a test... – someman112 Oct 26 '21 at 23:15
  • @Yaya123 are you sure? This is generally taught in college algebra. – Bonnaduck Oct 26 '21 at 23:21
  • yea I just searched the term 'rational roots theorem' in my textbook. I didn't find anything. I'm a first year student. Would I learn it in first year? – someman112 Oct 26 '21 at 23:26
  • @Yaya123 First year or high school, yes. Of course, your programs may differ from the one's I've seen. – Bonnaduck Oct 26 '21 at 23:32