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Let $p,q$ be two odd primes. Prove that $p$ is a primitive root of $q$ if and only if $\frac{x^q-1}{x-1}$ is an irreducible polynomial on $\mathbb{F}_p$

This is a middle school competition, I want to have pure competition method, here is an advanced method, I do not seem to understand, there is no simpler content to deal with this problem links

Second, does this seem to be a famous result?

PS:Middle school=High school

math110
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    Which middle school competition expects all/most of the contestants to understand all of the terms in your question? – Calvin Lin Oct 25 '21 at 14:40
  • Peking University students enrolled in secondary school competition – math110 Oct 25 '21 at 14:44
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    What is the theory that they are introduced with for these terms? Were they introduced to group theory? IE Can you clarify what constitutes "pure competition method"? $\quad$ Also, is that an active problem in the 2021 Peking University Autumn Camp, esp given that the link was just posted yesterday? – Calvin Lin Oct 25 '21 at 14:49
  • I think there can't introduced to group theory.I think have middle school methods.Because the students taking part in the competition are middle school students, that is, students before the 12th grade in China, have no contact with any advanced mathematics knowledge of a competition, somewhat similar to the Chinese Mathematical Olympiad – math110 Oct 25 '21 at 14:53
  • I'm guessing that you used "middle school" (ages ~12-14) incorrectly, and that you're referring to "high school" (ages ~15-18), which occurs before university. – Calvin Lin Oct 25 '21 at 15:00
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    oh,in china the high school say middle school, sorry – math110 Oct 25 '21 at 15:03
  • The sol'n in the link provided seems quite snappy already – Mike Oct 25 '21 at 23:51
  • I have answered this many times on the site already under various guises. The first hit. I somewhat doubt that even in China irreducibility of polynomials over finite fields is a high school level topic :-) – Jyrki Lahtonen Oct 27 '21 at 15:41
  • in china,high school student can't known the finite fields – math110 Oct 27 '21 at 23:50

2 Answers2

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Here is a "fake" elementary proof, as it is essentially a translation of some results on finite fields (as will any answer probably be). A "real proof" is attached at the end.


The "fake" proof.

Let $f(x) \in \Bbb F_p[x]$ be any irreducible factor of $\frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$. We prove two preparatory results.

  1. $\prod_{i = 0}^{q - 1}(x - t^i) \equiv x^q - 1\mod f(t)$ in $\Bbb F_p[x, t]$.

Consider the polynomial $H(x, t) = x^q - 1 - \prod_{i = 0}^{q - 1}(x - t^i) \in \Bbb Z[x, t]$.

Write $\zeta = e^{\frac{2\pi i}q} \in \Bbb C$. We have $H(x, \zeta^i) = 0$ for all $0 \leq i < q$, which implies that $t^q - 1 \mid H(x, t)$ (as polynomials over $\Bbb Z$, by Euclidean division). After mod $p$, we get the result we want.

  1. For $i \not\equiv j \mod q$, we have $t^i \not\equiv t^j \mod f(t)$ in $\Bbb F_p[x, t]$.

In 1, We take formal derivative with respect to $x$: $$f(t) \mid qx^{q - 1} - \sum_{i = 0}^{q - 1}\prod_{j \neq i}(x - t^j) =: D(x, t).$$ If there existed $i \neq j$ such that $t^i\equiv t^j \mod f(t)$, then every summand in the expression $D(t^i, t)$ would be divisible by $f(t)$, as it would have either the factor $(t^i - t^i)$ or the factor $(t^i - t^j)$.

Consequently, we would have $f(t) \mid qt^{i(q - 1)}$. As $f(t)$ is irreducible, this leads to $f(t) = t$, which is impossible.


First assume that $p^r \equiv 1\mod q$ for some $r < q - 1$. We want to show that $\frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ is reducible over $\Bbb F_p$.

For every nonnegative integer $d$, we consider the polynomial $G_d(x, t) = \prod_{i = 0}^{r - 1} (x - t^{dp^i}) \in \Bbb F_p[x, t]$.

I claim that there exists a polynomial $g_d(x) \in \Bbb F_p[x]$ such that $G_d(x, t) \equiv g_d(x) \mod f(t)$.

Note that $q \mid p^r - 1$ implies that $t^{dp^r}\equiv t^d \mod f(t)$. Consequently, $G_d(x, t^p) = \prod_{i = 1}^r(x - t^{dp^i}) \equiv G_d(x, t)\mod f(t)$.

On the other hand, if we write $G_d(x, t) = \sum_{i = 0}^r a_i(t)x^i$ with polynomials $a_i(t) \in \Bbb F_p[t]$, then we have $$G_d(x, t^p) = \sum_{i = 0}^r a_i(t^p) x^i = \sum_{i = 0}^r a_i(t)^p x^i$$ and hence $a_i(t)^p \equiv a_i(t) \mod f(t)$.

This can be rewritten as $\prod_{s \in \Bbb F_p}(a_i(t) - s) \equiv 0 \mod f(t)$. Since $f$ is irreducible, there exists $s_i \in \Bbb F_p$ such that $a_i(t) - s_i \equiv 0\mod f(t)$.

Putting $g_d(x) = \sum_{i = 0}^rs_i x^i$ gives us $G_d(x, t) \equiv g_d(x) \mod f(t)$.

We note that in the definition of $G_d(x, t)$, we may replace $dp^i$ with any integer that is congruent to $dp^i$ mod $q$, because $t^q \equiv 1\mod f(t)$.

We may partition all the nonzero residue classes mod $q$ into subsets of the form $S_d = \{d, dp, \dots, dp^{r - 1}\} \subseteq \Bbb F_q^\times$, say $\Bbb F_q^\times = \bigsqcup_{j = 1}^n S_{d_j}$, with $n = \frac{q - 1}r > 1$. It follows that $$\prod_{j = 1}^n g_{d_j}(x) \equiv \prod_{j = 1}^nG_{d_j}(x, t)\equiv \prod_{i = 1}^{q - 1} (x - t^i) \mod f(t).$$

Since $p, q$ are different, $x - 1$ must be prime to $f$ and hence $\prod_{i = 1}^{q - 1}(x - t^i)\equiv \frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1} \mod f(t)$.

It follows that $\prod_{j = 1}^n g_{d_i}(x) \equiv \frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}\mod f(t)$. As both sides don't involve $t$, it is in fact an equality in $\Bbb F_p[x]$, and we have shown that $\frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ is reducible.


Now assume that $p$ is a primitive root mod $q$. We want to show that $\frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ is irreducible.

Write $t_i = t^{p^i}$. Since $p$ is a primitive root, we have $p^i \not \equiv p^j \mod q$ for any $0 \leq i < j < q - 1$, which implies $t_i \not \equiv t_j \mod f(t)$ for such $i, j$.

We prove by induction on $k$ that, for each $0 \leq k \leq q - 1$, there exists $f_k(x, t) \in \Bbb F_p[x, t]$ such that $f(x) \equiv f_k(x, t)\prod_{i = 0}^{k - 1}(x - t_i) \mod f(t)$.

For $k = 0$, simply take $f_0(x, t) = f(x)$. Assume it's true for $k$ ($k < q - 1$) and we want to prove it for $k + 1$.

We have $f(x) \equiv f_k(x, t)\prod_{i = 0}^{k - 1}(x - t_i) \mod f(t)$. Putting $x = t_k$ gives $f(t) \mid f_k(t_k, t)\prod_{i = 0}^{k - 1}(t_k - t_i)$, because $f(t_k) = f(t)^{p^k}$.

Since $f(t)$ is irreducible and $t_k - t_i$ is not divisible by $f(t)$, we see that $f(t) \mid f_k(t_k, t)$.

Therefore, choosing $f_{k + 1}(x, t) = \frac{f_k(x, t) - f_k(t_k, t)}{x - t_k}$ (which is a polynomial) will give $f_k(x, t) \equiv f_{k + 1}(x, t)(x - t_k) \mod f(t)$ and hence the willing property.

In particular, for $k = q - 1$, we get $f(x) \equiv f_{q - 1}(x, t) \prod_{i = 0}^{q - 2}(x - t_i) \mod f(t)$.

However, when $i$ runs through $0$ to $q - 2$, the residue class of $p^i$ runs through the whole $\Bbb F_q^\times$, as $p$ is a primitive root.

Therefore $\prod_{i = 0}^{q - 2}(x - t_i) \equiv \prod_{i = 1}^{q - 1}(x - t^i) \equiv \frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1} \mod f(t)$.

It follows that the degree of $f(x)$ is at least $q - 1$, and hence $f = \frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ is irreducible.

If we write $f_{q - 1}(x, t) = \sum b_i(t)x^i$ and let $d$ denote the largest integer such that $f(t) \nmid b_d(t)$, then the coefficient of $x^{d + q - 1}$ in the product $f_{q - 1}(x, t)\cdot \frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ is not divisible by $f(t)$. This forces $\deg f \geq q - 1$.


The real proof.

The only non-elementary thing I use is that there are $q$ different $q$-th roots of unity in some extension field of $\Bbb F_p$.

Let $\zeta$ be one such root of unity, i.e. a root of $\frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ in some extension of $\Bbb F_p$.

First suppose that $p^r \equiv 1\mod q$ for some $r < q - 1$. We form the polynomial $g = \prod_{i = 0}^{r - 1}(x - \zeta^{p^i})$ and notice that it is invariant under the Frobenius, hence is indeed a polynomial in $\Bbb F_p[x]$. Meanwhile it's clear that it is a divisor of $\frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$.

Next suppose that $p$ is a primitive root mod $q$. Let $f$ be any factor of $\frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ and suppose without loss of generality that $\zeta$ is a root of $f$.

Applying Frobenius, we see that $\zeta^{p^i}$ is a root of $f$ for every $i$. As $i$ ranges through all integers, the residue class of $p^i$ ranges through all $\Bbb F_q^\times$ and we conclude that $\zeta^i$ for $1 \leq i \leq q - 1$ are all roots of $f$, hence $f = \frac{x^q - 1}{x - 1}$ is irreducible.

WhatsUp
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Just rewrite the solutions above in a simplr way (
This is immediate via considering the corresponding field extensions:
Recall that the multiplicative group of any finite field $\mathbb{F}_{p^k}$ is cyclic (of order $p^k-1$).
In particular, there exists an element of order $q$ in $\mathbb{F}_{p^k}$ iff $q \mid p^k-1$.
Now first suppose that $p$ is not a primitive root modulo $q$. Then $p$ has multiplicative order $k<q-1$ modulo $q$ i.e. $q \mid p^k-1$.
But as explained above, this means that $\mathbb{F}_{p^k}$ has an element of order $q$ i.e. a root $\alpha$ of $\frac{x^q-1}{x-1}=0$.
So the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ divides $\frac{x^q-1}{x-1}$ but has degree $k<q-1$, hence $\frac{x^q-1}{x-1}$ is not irreducible.
Conversely, suppose that $\frac{x^q-1}{x-1}$ is reducible and hence has some irreducible factor of degree $k<q-1$. Adjoining a root of this polynomial to $\mathbb{F}_p$ we get the field $\mathbb{F}_{p^k}$ in which $\frac{x^q-1}{x-1}$ has a root $\alpha$. But then $\alpha$ has order dividing $q$, hence order either $1$ or $q$. If $\alpha=1$, then $p=q$. If $\alpha$ has order $q$, then $q \mid p^k-1$. In any case, $p$ is not a primitive root modulo $q$.