I was taught in my University's Calculus 1 course that the derivative of a function at a point is its "Instantaneous rate of change" , it was defined using this limit:
$lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$
Now what is currently confusing me, is how the value of this limit can be the exact value of an "Instantaneous rate of change", shouldn't it be just a (very) good approximation ? because when I think about it, an exact "Instantaneous rate of change" does not make sense.
Wouldn't this also be the case with a tangent line's gradient at a point, it would also be an approximation, because an exact tangent line gradient wouldn't make sense because you need to have 2 points to obtain a line's gradient.
So is the way I am thinking about this correct ? or am I misunderstanding something ?