Proposition If $M$ is a finite set of men and $a, b\in M,$ then $a$ and $b$ are equal. (1)
Proof by induction on the number of men in $M:$
- (1) is true if $M$ contains only one man.
- Assume that (1) is true for all sets of $n$ men. Let $M$ be a set of $n+1$ men with $a, b\in M.$ $M_a = M \setminus \{a\}$ and $M_b = M \setminus \{b\}.$ These sets have $n$ elements. Let $c\in M_a\cap M_b.$ Then, by the induction hypothesis, $c$ and $a$ are equal, so are $c$ and $b.$ Thus, so are $a$ and $b.$
What's wrong?
Ref. Analysis I, Herbert Amann, p. 45