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I'm reading about the construction of the Real numbers and am curious how irrational constants $\pi, e, \sqrt 2 \in \mathbb R$. I understand that each real element contains all the smaller rationals $\in \mathbb Q$. The above constants $c$, when calculated, are non-terminating and slowly converging. Therefore, how is it possible that one of these constants $c \in \mathbb R$ when the rationals below $c$ have yet to be determined? Are constants like these $\in \mathbb R$ without an underlying interpretation (as a set of smaller rationals)? If that is the case, how is order of $\mathbb R$ established?

Nick
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  • How can a real "element" contain all the smaller rational numbers? What means "contain"? – Dietrich Burde Sep 29 '21 at 14:56
  • @DietrichBurde presumably, this is about the Dedekind cut construction of the real numbers where each real number is a set of rational numbers. – Thomas Andrews Sep 29 '21 at 14:59
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    What does it mean "the rationals below $c$ have yet to be determined"? The rationals below $\pi$ are rationals that are less than $\pi$. The set of such rational is infinite. We can determine for every rational number if it is less than $\pi$ or not. But we cannot find maximum rational number which is less than $\pi$. But we can find maximum rational number which is less than $\pi$ and has denominator less than $a$. – Ivan Kaznacheyeu Sep 29 '21 at 15:00
  • Yeah, the real confusion is in your phrase “have yet to be determined.” It is not clear what that means. I know how to determine if a rational number is $<\sqrt2,$ or $<e.$ Or $<\pi.$ – Thomas Andrews Sep 29 '21 at 15:21

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In all of the cases below, we define $B=\mathbb R\setminus A,$ the complement of $A.$

We can find the Dedekind cut for $\sqrt{2}$ as:

$$A=\left\{q\in\mathbb Q\mid q<0\lor q^2<2\right\}$$

We get that $(A,B=\mathbb R\setminus A)$ is a cut because:

  1. $0\in A, 4\in B.$
  2. If $a\in A$ and $a’<a,$ then $a’\in A.$
  3. If $b\in B$ and $b’>b,$ then $b’\in B.$
  4. The hard part: If $a\in A,$ then there is an $a’>a$ such that $a’\in A.$ For $a>0,$ let $a’=\frac{3a+4}{2a+3}.$ It takes a little work to show this $a’$ satisfies the conditions.

We can define $e$ as the Dedekind cut:

$$A=\left\{q\in\mathbb Q\mid \exists N,q<\sum_{n=0}^N\frac1{n!}\right\}$$

We can use this formula for $\pi:$ $$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(2n)!!}{(2n+1)!!} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n-1} = {\pi}$$ to define the Dedekind cut for $\pi:$

$$A=\left\{q\in\mathbb Q\,\Big\vert\,\exists N,q< \sum_{n=0}^{N} \frac{(2n)!!}{(2n+1)!!} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n-1}\right\} $$

For $e$ and $\pi,$ condition (4) is easier, because if $a<\sum_{n=0}^N f(n),$ you can pick $a’=\sum_{n=0}^N f(n)<\sum_{n=1}^{N+1} f(n)$ works.

But for these, proving $B$ is non-empty is a few more steps - you have to prove the sums are bounded above. Not hard - they are bounded by geometric series - but a necessary step.


But we don’t really need to show these are the Dedekind cuts. You only need to show that the set of all Dedekind cuts have the properties we want for the real line.

For example, we don’t need a Dedekind cut to show that $\sqrt2$ is a real number. We could just as well use a Cauchy sequence of real numbers which bounce around $\sqrt2.$ Theorems show that there must be a real number limit, and hence a Dedekind cut, since real numbers are Dedekind cuts.


If we want an algorithm for determining whether a rational number belongs to $B$ in these cases, we can only give good ones for $e$ and $\pi$ by proving that $e$ and $\pi$ are irrational (or, if rational, knowing the exact rational value.)

But set definitions don’t require algorithms.

If $a_N$ is a strictly increasing rational sequence and $b_N$ is a strictly decreasing rational sequence such that $a_N<b_N$ and $b_N-a_N\to 0,$ we can define $$A=\{a\in\mathbb Q\mid \exists N, a<a_N\}\\B=\{b\in\mathbb Q\mid \exists N, b>b_N\}$$

This might not be a cut. If it is not a cut, though, we can prove there must be a unique rational number $q$ such that $(A,B\cup\{q\})$ is a cut.

So there is a unique Dedekind cut corresponding to the real limit of these two sequences, even if we don’t know whether the cut is for a rational or an irrational number, or what our specific $B$ looks like.

More generally, if $A_0,B_0$ are non-empty sets of rational numbers such that,

  1. $A_0$ does not have a maximal element,
  2. $\forall a\in A_0,b\in B_0, a<b,$
  3. For all $n\in\mathbb Z^+,$ $\exists a\in A_0,b\in B_0, b-a<\frac1n,$

Then there is a unique cut $(A,B)$ such that $A_0\subseteq A, B_0\subseteq B.$

We can define $$A=\bigcup_{a\in A_0} \{q\mid q<a\}$$ and $B=\mathbb R\setminus A.$


Indeed, an alternative construction defines a cut with $B$ not containing a minimum element, just as $A$ doesn’t contain a maximum, and requiring $A\cup B$ be missing at most one rational. But that definition feels more complex, so it is less often used.

Thomas Andrews
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  • Moreover, once we show that the set of real numbers (regardless of how we construct it) has all the desired properties, including continuity and the Intermediate Value Theorem, then we can deduce that constants such as $\sqrt 2$ (the positive root of $x^2-2$) and $e$ (the solution to $\int_1^x \frac{dt}d = 1$) exist, without postulating that in the first place. – Greg Martin Sep 29 '21 at 15:30
  • The statement about $a$ and $a'$ needs some attention, as well as the definition of $A$ and $B$, I suppose. And the first line below them, too. – CiaPan Sep 29 '21 at 16:04
  • '...there must be a Dedekind cut corresponding to the limit' – except that there is no such limit in $\mathbb Q$. – CiaPan Sep 29 '21 at 16:06
  • Could you be more specific about your first comment? Which statement about $a,a’?$ @CiaPan As for your second comment, sure, I was speaking looosely. – Thomas Andrews Sep 29 '21 at 16:35
  • I meant those fixed here in the 4-th revision. :) – CiaPan Sep 29 '21 at 16:45
  • Still reviewing. I noticed that constant series is finite, whereas the definitions are infinite. Is that done for a reason? – Nick Sep 29 '21 at 21:57
  • Do you mean the formula for $\pi$ is an infinite sum, but the sum in the definition of $A$ uses finite sums? I did that because the finite sums are rational. Before we’ve defined real numbers, we can’t tell what it means for a rational number to be less than $\pi,$ but we can tell what it means to be less than the finite sum. Once we have the definition of real numbers, and a way of embedding the rationals, of course for any real number $\alpha$ The cut is just $$A={q\mid \rho(q)<\alpha},$$ where $\rho(q)$ is the embedding of the rational number $q$ in the reals. But that is circular. – Thomas Andrews Sep 29 '21 at 22:06
  • This technique for sums works because the terms are positive. You couldn’t use an alternating sum like $\ln 2=\sum_1^\infty (-1)^{n-1}/n.$ – Thomas Andrews Sep 29 '21 at 22:08
  • Sorry, should have tagged you in one of those replies. @nick – Thomas Andrews Sep 29 '21 at 22:14
  • Ok, I’m still unclear on use of the finite sum, which differs from the definition of the number. – Nick Sep 30 '21 at 01:15
  • $q<\sum_{k=0}^\infty p_k$ iff $q<\sum_{k=0}^{N} p_k,$ for some $N.$ At least if $p_k\geq 0$ for all $k.$ @nick The finite sums are always rational, so we are defining $A$ in terms of rational numbers, not real numbers. – Thomas Andrews Sep 30 '21 at 01:23
  • Thanks. I'm having challenges understanding how the irrational numbers can be defined in terms of rationals. I understand a rational will be an approximation of up to the n-th term of an infinite series of the irrational, as you have here, but it is not the irrational which is a required element in the set of reals. – Nick Oct 03 '21 at 12:58