Let $Y \subseteq \Bbb{P}^n$ and $Z \subseteq \Bbb{P}^m$ be two projective varieties. By $Y \times Z$, we really mean the image of $Y \times Z$ via the Segre embedding $\psi$ in $\Bbb{P}^N$ with $N = (n+1)(m+1) - 1$. We want to determine the $t$ -th graded piece of the coordinate ring of a product of two projective varieties $Y$ and $Z$. Now I have looked in many texts (Hartshorne, Liu, Shafarevich, Fulton, Gortz - Wedhorn, Milne's notes, etc) but no one seems to say what it is!
My guess is: $$S(Y\times Z)_t \cong S(Y)_t \otimes_k S(Z)_t$$
Now I have tried to prove this as follows. First let $x_{00},\ldots,x_{nm}$ be coordinates on $\Bbb{P}^N$, $y_0,\ldots,y_n$ coordinates on $\Bbb{P}^n$ and $z_0,\ldots,z_n$ coordinates on $\Bbb{P}^m$. Then the induced map $\psi^\ast$ that sends $x_{ij} \mapsto y_i \otimes z_j$ is actually a surjection when we restrict to graded pieces
$$\psi^\ast : k[x_{ij}]_t \to k[y_0,\ldots,y_n]_t \otimes_k k[z_0,\ldots,z_m]_t.$$
Thus we get a surjection $\psi^\ast : k[x_{ij}]_t \to S(X)_t \otimes_k S(Y)_t $.
My question is: Why is the kernel of this map $I(\psi(X \times Y))$? It seems almost impossible to prove this because in general to say what elements are actually zero in a tensor product, difficult it is to tell. How can I prove my claim above via an alternative method?