I am reading a book on statistical mechanics in which the author uses a Taylor Expansion to derive the Boltzmann distribution. He starts with the following equation for the probability of any state $\epsilon$:
$$P(\epsilon) \propto \Omega(E- \epsilon) \times 1$$
The author takes the natural logarithm of both sides and expands the right hand side in a taylor expansion about $\epsilon = 0$, to get this:
$$ln\left(\Omega(E- \epsilon)\right) = ln(\Omega(E)) - \frac{d \ ln(\Omega(E))}{dE}\epsilon + ...$$
I don't understand how the author has reached this, the corresponding standard taylor series expansion about $a$ is:
$$f(x) = f(a) +\frac{d \ f(x)}{dx}(x-a)+...$$
I don't see which part of $ln\left(\Omega(E- \epsilon)\right)$ should be considered $x$, and which part should be considered $a$. Should $(E- \epsilon)$ all be considered $x$, should it be only $E$ or $\epsilon$?
It seems the second answer to that question fits the expansion, what do you think?
– Connor Sep 23 '21 at 19:36