Suppose that I have a sequence of functions $f_i$ and $g_i$, and I know that for each $i, \frac{f_i}{g_i}$ is increasing in its argument.
Is it then also true that $\frac{\sum_i^N f_i(x)}{\sum_i^N g_i(x)}$ is increasing in $x$?
Additionally I know that for all $i$: $f_i,g_i >0$, $g'_i<0$, $g_i>g_{i+1}$, $\frac{f_i(x)}{g_i(x)}<\frac{f_{i+1}(x)}{g_{i+1}(x)}$. But I don't believe I need that.
I could only show this for special cases -- simply by taking the derivative and looking at the sign of $\sum f'_i(x) \sum g_i(x) - \sum f_i(x) \sum g'_i(x)$ and making assumptions. I played around with $N=2$. However, I could not rearrange it to prove my conjecture in general. Is it even true? I could not find a counter example.