I am going through the first chapter of "A concise Introduction to Pure Mathematics" but can't get my head around how Liebeck explains the proof by contradiction. He starts with:
Suppose we wish to prove the truth of a statement P. A proof by contradiction would proceed by first assuming that P is false - in other words, assuming $\bar{P}$. We would try to deduce from this a statement Q that is palpably false (0=1, for example).
Up until this point, my knowledge matches, but then he goes on:
Having done this, we have shown $ \bar{P} \implies Q$. Hence also $ \bar{Q} \implies P$. Since we know Q is false, $\bar{Q}$ is true, and hence so is P, so we have proved P, as desired.
I understand why $ \bar{Q} \implies \bar{P} $ is equivalent to $P \implies Q$ (thanks to this question) but why by proving $ \bar{P} \implies Q$ , then it follows P is true?. Didn't we assume $ \bar{P}$ was true so the statement $ \bar{P} \implies Q$ is false (because of $T \implies F$)?