0

Definition of a compact set: A set $S$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$ is said to be compact if, and only if, every open covering of $S$ contains a finite subcover, that is, a finite subcollection which also covers $S$.

The Heine-Borel theorem states that every closed and bounded set in $\mathbb{R}^n$ is compact. Now we prove the converse result.

I know that $4$ is the bounded set for $[1,5]$ for $1<x<5$ but I got little confused on getting if it is compact or not since there is no finite subcover. Can you help me here please?

1 Answers1

1

Welcome to Stack Exchange and topology :)

I suppose you want to use the Heine-Borel theorem in this case. Then you shouldn't ask about compactness but you should check boundedness and closeness of the given set.

The given set is bounded below by 1 (or any number less than 1) and above by 5 (or any number greater than 5). Since the interval $[1,5]$ is bounded below and above, we conclude that it is bounded.

On the other hand, $[1,5]=\mathbb{R} \backslash\left( (-\infty ,1)\cup (5,\infty)\right)$, hence it is closed.

So, we showed that $[1,5]$ is bounded and closed, thus by Heine-Borel theorem it must be compact.

Emo
  • 3,446