Let $D$ be an integral domain and $a,b,x \in D$.
If $d$ is a greatest common divisor ( gcd ) of $a$ and $b$, is it true that $dx$ is a gcd of $ax$ and $bx$?
Note that $D$ is an integer domain, not a GCD domain. So this question is not the same as any of the following questions:1 2 3 etc. More specifically, the existence of gcd of $ax$ and $bx$ is not guaranteed.
Any insights are much appreciated.
BTW: To avoid ambiguity, I haven't used notations such as $(a,b)$ or $(ax,bx)$, which makes me verbose. You may use it at will.