Note - I am just starting to learn about theory of distributions, so this may be a trivial question, if so I'd be grateful for a reference, nevertheless the question is the following: suppose I have a function $f$ such that $f \in L^1$ and $f$ is differentiable almost everywhere (in the strong sense) and I'm trying to find whether or not it's weak derivative can be represented by a function $g \in L^1_{\operatorname{loc}}$.
Is it obvious that if such $g$ exists then we must have $g = f'$ a.e.? of course I know it doesn't have to be true that if $f'$ exists a.e. then it's the weak derivative of $f$ since the weak derivative can be for example $\delta_0$ but if all I'm interested in is whether or not the weak derivative of $f$ can be represented as an integration (with respect to the Lebesgue measure) against some function then is it enough to just check whether or not $f'$ works?