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Let $k$ be a positive integer, $\mathbb{F}_q$ be the finite field with $q$ elements. Consider the polynomial $f(X, Y) = 1 + X^k + Y^k + X^{2k} + Y^{2k}$ over $\mathbb{F}_q$. How to verify whether it is absolutely irreducible (irreducible over $\overline{\mathbb{F}_q}$) or not?

The context is the following: I am considering existence of rational points over finite fields. In that direction I wanted to use Andre Weil's result as in "Numbers of solutions of equations in finite fields". In order to use Weil's results, I need to first prove absolute irreducibility of the polynomial.

Kenta S
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Vanya
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    A simple way for proving that a bivariate polynomial is absolutely irreducible is to prove that the (projective) curve of its zero locus is smooth. After all, if the polynomial factors, then the curves defined by the factors intersect by Bezout, and any point of intersection will automatically be a singular point. This helps your main task also in that for smooth curves we have a simple genus formula etc. I didn't check everything, but I would try that attack anyway. Those singularities will affect the genus, and hence also the Weil bound, so you need to do it anyway! – Jyrki Lahtonen Aug 29 '21 at 07:14
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    What may happen is that for some pairs of $q$ and $k$ there is a singularity, but then you will have a lot more information to play with. Here you have an "obvious" special case... – Jyrki Lahtonen Aug 29 '21 at 07:15
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    The calculation of the $\Bbb{F}_q$-solutions is simplified by the observation that in the main case where $\gcd(k,q-1)=1$ we have that $x\mapsto x^k$ and $y\mapsto y^k$ are bijections of $\Bbb{F}_q$, and you only need to study the number of solutions of $1+x+y+x^2+y^2=0$. – Jyrki Lahtonen Aug 29 '21 at 11:02
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    @Jykri as you suggestion nonsingularity can be verified using partial derivatives, and that would give absolute irreducibility in the case where gcd of k and q-1 is 1 – Vanya Aug 29 '21 at 11:22
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    @user49908 Why don't you go an post that calculation as an answer! It would make a good one, and you get feedback on the details. Oh, and please check the spelling of my name. I won't be pinged otherwise :-) – Jyrki Lahtonen Aug 29 '21 at 12:06

2 Answers2

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Your attempt is not quite right: if $f\in F[x,y]$ factors as $f=f_1f_2$, then $V(f)$ is singular along $V(f_1)\cap V(f_2)\subset\Bbb A^2$, but these subvarieties need not meet in $\Bbb A^2$ (e.g. $x(x+1)$). The fix is to consider $f^h\in F[x,y,z]$, the homogenization of $f$ with respect to $z$, and look at $V(f^h)\subset\Bbb P^2$: if $f$ factors nontrivially as $f=f_1f_2$, then $f^h=f_1^hf_2^h$, and $V(f_1^h)\cap V(f_2^h)\subset\Bbb P^2$ must be nonempty by Bezout, so if $f$ is reducible then $V(f^h)$ must be singular. We can check this by the Jacobian criterion.


Homogenizing our $f$, we get $f^h=z^{2k}+x^kz^k+y^kz^k+x^{2k}+y^{2k}$ which has Jacobian $$\begin{pmatrix} kx^{k-1}(2x^k+z^k) & ky^{k-1}(2y^k+z^k) & kz^{k-1}(x^k+y^k+2z^k) \end{pmatrix}$$ and $v\in V(f^h)$ is singular iff all the entries of the Jacobian vanish at $v$. Now we do some casework:

  • If $p\mid k$, then all entries of our Jacobian vanish identically, and indeed our original polynomial is $(1+x^{k/p}+y^{k/p}+x^{2k/p}+y^{2k/p})^p$, which isn't irreducible. From now on, assume $(k,p)=1$.
  • If $p=2$, then the entries of our Jacobian vanish iff $x^{k-1}z^k$, $y^{k-1}z^k$, and $x^kz^{k-1}+y^kz^{k-1}$ do. So either $x=y=0$ or $z=0$. In the first case, $[0:0:1]$ is not on our curve, but in the second case we do have singular points: $[\zeta:1:0]$ for $\zeta$ a $2k^{th}$ root of unity. From now on, assume $p\neq 2$.
  • If any two of $x,y,z$ are zero, then the third must be zero as well, which gives that our curve is nonsingular. Therefore we may assume that either one or none of $x,y,z$ are zero.
  • If $z=0$ and $x,y\neq 0$, then the first two entries of our Jacobian don't vanish anywhere.
  • If $x=0$ and $y,z\neq 0$ then we must have $2y^k+z^k=0$ and $y^k+2z^k=0$, which implies $(2y^k+z^k)-(y^k+2z^k)=y^k-z^k=0$. For such a point to be on our curve, it must also satisfy $z^{2k}+y^kz^k+y^{2k}=0$, which gives us that $3y^{2k}=3z^{2k}=0$. When $p\neq 3$, we get that $y=z=0$ and we have don't have singular points. When $p=3$, the singular points with $x=0$ are of the form $[0:\zeta:1]$ for $\zeta$ a $k^{th}$ root of unity. The case $y=0$ and $x,z\neq 0$ follows by symmetry.
  • If none of $x,y,z$ are zero, then we must have $2x^k+z^k=2y^k+z^k=x^k+y^k+2z^k=0$. But then two times the last equation minus the first two equations implies $2z^k=0$, so there are no singular points here.

What we've shown so far is that if $p\neq 2,3$ and $(k,p)=1$, then $f$ is irreducible, while if $p\mid k$ then $f$ is a $p^{th}$ power and reducible. The cases $p=2$ and $p=3$ require more investigation - our curve has singularities there, but this does not automatically imply that $f$ is reducible (consider $y^2z=x^3+x^2z$, for instance).

When $p=2$, let $\alpha\in\overline{\Bbb F_2}$ solve $t^2+t+1$. Then we have $$(\alpha x^k+\alpha y^k+1)((\alpha+1)x^k+(\alpha+1)y^k+1)=x^{2k}+y^{2k}+x^k+y^k+1,$$ and $f$ is reducible.

When $p=3$, if $k$ is even, we may find the following factorization: $$(x^k+\sqrt{2}x^{k/2}y^{k/2}+y^k-1)(x^k-\sqrt{2}x^{k/2}y^{k/2}+y^k-1)=x^{2k}+y^{2k}+x^k+y^k+1.$$ I claim that when $k$ is odd, $f$ is irreducible. By considering $f$ over $F[x^{1/2},y^{1/2}]$, we have $f$ factors as before, so it suffices to prove that $x^{2l}\pm\sqrt{2}x^ly^l+y^{2l}-1$ is irreducible in $k[x,y]$. The Jacobian of the homogenization of these polynomials are $$\begin{pmatrix} lx^{l-1}(2x^l\pm\sqrt{2}y^l) & ly^{l-1}(2y^l\pm\sqrt{2}x^l) & -2lz^{2l-1} \end{pmatrix},$$ whose entries simultaneously vanish iff $x=y=z=0$ or $2x^l\pm\sqrt{2}y^l=2y^l\pm\sqrt{2}x^l=z=0$. The first case can't happen, while the second case gives $z=0$ and $(2\pm\sqrt{2})(x^l+y^l)=0\Rightarrow x^l+y^l=0$, which is not satisfied at any point on $V(x^{2l}\pm\sqrt{2}x^ly^l+y^{2l}-z^{2l})$.


In summary: $f$ is absolutely irreducible iff $(k,p)=1$ and either 1) $p=3$ while $k$ is odd or 2) $p>3$.

KReiser
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Let $k$ be a positive integer, and let $F_q$ be the finite field with $q$ elements.

First the characteristic of $F_q$ is not $2$. Based on the suggestion by @Jyrki Lahtonen, it follows that if the curve defined the equation $f(X,Y) = 1 + X^k + y^k + X^{2k} + Y^{2k}$ is nonsingular it is absolutely irreducible, otherwise, the irreducible factors of the equation over the algebraic closure $\bar{F_q}$ intersect, due to Bezout's theorem, necessarily in singular points. Furthermore, if $k$ and $q-1$ are relatively prime, then homomorphism $x \mapsto x^k: F_q \to F_q$ is a surjection, so by change of variables it suffices to treat the case when $f(X,Y) = 1 + X + Y + X^2 + Y^2$. The partial derivative with respect to $X$, $Y$ respectively are is $1 + 2 X$ are $1 + 2 Y$, and they vanish at the point $(-1/2, -1/2)$, but the value of $f$ at this point is $1 + (-1/2) + (-1/2) + 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/8$ which is nonzero, because we have assumed that characteristic of $F_q$ to be not $2$ (so that the point does not lie on the curve). Since the equations $f = 0,f_x = 0 , f_y = 0$ have no common zero, it follows that the curve is nonsingular, and therefore by Weil's theorem, the number $N$ of $F_q$ points satisfies $$ | N- q | \leq (d-1)(d-2) \sqrt{q} + d $$ where $d$ is the degree of the curve, which in our case is $2$. Therefore, $$ q - 2 \leq N \leq q + 2 $$ so that if $q > 2$, we have at least one solution.

Now suppose the characteristic of $F_q$ is $2$. Then $f_x = 1$ and $f_y = 1$, so that $f(X,Y)$ is nonsingular too, and the above estimate remains valid.

Please correct me if there is a gap in the proof.

Vanya
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  • I added another example of a curve where the jacobian ideal is the unit ideal, but where the curve is not geometrically irreducible - hence there appears to be something wrong with Lakhtonens claim. – hm2020 Aug 29 '21 at 14:17
  • Apprarently I did not make everything clear. The bijective substitution helps only at the task of counting the number of $\Bbb{F}_q$-rational points. It does not help you prove absolute irreducibility. – Jyrki Lahtonen Aug 29 '21 at 20:34
  • Of course, this calculation may still be more relevant to your underlying problem :-) – Jyrki Lahtonen Aug 30 '21 at 10:07
  • Anyway, after you make the substitution you are left with (assuming odd characteristic) $$(x+\frac12)^2+(y+\frac12)^2+\frac12=0.$$ You will not be needing Hasse-Weil to see that this has solutions. It is the old: in a finite field everything is the sum of two squares. – Jyrki Lahtonen Aug 30 '21 at 10:09