The real analysis book that I had read mentions that "most continuous functions do not have derivatives at any point." The precise mathematical definition of "most" can be inferred from the following theorem.
Theorem: Let $C[0,1]$ be the collection of continuous functions on the closed interval $[0, 1]$ and let the set $D$ be defined as $$D = \{f \in C[0,1] : f'(x) \text{ exists for some} x ∈ [0,1]\}.$$ Then $D$ is a set of first category (a meager set) in $C[0,1]$.
From the above theorem, the qualification of "most" (referring to the sentence mentioned in the very first line of this post) seems to imply that it means "non-meagerness" of the set of continuous nowhere-differentiable functions. So a meager set should then be equivalent to a negligible set. As regards to the source where the term negligible is used to qualify a meager set, Wikipedia is an example among numerous others. I would like to know how a meager set can qualify as being negligible, given the following facts.
- There are meager sets with non-zero Lebesgue measure like the fat-Cantor set.
- There are meager sets whose cardinality is same as that of the real numbers, like in the Cantor set.
So meager sets can have as many elements in them as that in the set of reals, and can have a non-zero measure, but are still considered negligible simply because they are nowhere dense?
I would like to know the justification of referring to meager sets as being negligible especially in light of the above two facts that I have mentioned about meager sets.