I'd like to show that the MacLaurin series of the function in question is $ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\binom{-1/2}{n} x^{2n}$, where $ \binom{-1/2}{n} $ is the generalized binomial coefficient.
I know and I can prove, that in general the MacLaurin series of $(1+x)^\alpha = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\binom{\alpha}{n} x^{n} $ (for $|x| < 1$), thus $$ f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}} = (1-x)^{-1/2}(1+x)^{-1/2} = \left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{(-1)}^n\binom{-1/2}{n} x^{n}\right) \left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\binom{-1/2}{n} x^{n} \right)$$
Or equivalently from the Cauchy product of two power-series:
$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^{n} \sum_{k=0}^{n}{(-1)^k \binom{-1/2}{k} \binom{-1/2}{n-k}} $$
It's easy to see, that when $n$ is odd, then
$$ \sum_{k=0}^{n}{(-1)^n \binom{-1/2}{k} \binom{-1/2}{n-k}} =0 $$
because the terms cancel each other in the sum.
On the other hand I cannot see that $\sum_{k=0}^{n}{(-1)^n \binom{-1/2}{k} \binom{-1/2}{n-k}} = (-1)^n\binom{-1/2}{n/2}$ for $n$ even. I looked into Vandermonde's identity and its different forms, but I couldn't find anything that I could directly apply. I also wrote out the terms of the $\binom{-1/2}{k} \binom{-1/2}{n-k} $ product, but I couldn't find a way to simplify it. All I managed to do, is to check numerically that the identity holds for the first couple $n=2, 4, 6, 8, \dots$
Could anyone point me to the right direction?