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This is really two questions. Consider the structure $(\mathbb{C};+,-,*,0,1)$. Are the pointwise definable elements in that structure precisely the rational numbers? The second question is about the structure $(\mathbb{C};+,-,*,0,1,i)$. I conjecture that the pointwise definable elements in that structure are the complex numbers which have both a rational real part and a rational imaginary part. Are either or both of these conjectures true?

user107952
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Your intuition is exactly correct; an element $\alpha\in\mathbb{C}$ is $\varnothing$-definable if and only if $\alpha\in\mathbb{Q}$, and it is $\{i\}$-definable if and only if $\alpha\in\mathbb{Q}(i)$. More generally, $\alpha$ is $\varnothing$-algebraic or $\{i\}$-algebraic if and only if it lies in $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$, the algebraic closure of $\mathbb{Q}$ in $\mathbb{C}$. There are a number of ways to see these facts; as Noah Schweber says, the easiest way is probably using automorphisms. (Recall that, if an element of some first-order structure is definable over some subset $A$ of parameters, then it will be fixed by every automorphism of the structure that fixes $A$ pointwise.) With Zorn's lemma and a bit of field theory, one can show that, for any subfield $F\subseteq\mathbb{C}$, two elements $\alpha,\beta\in\mathbb{C}$ are conjugate by an automorphism of $\mathbb{C}$ fixing $F$ pointwise if and only if one of the following holds:

  1. $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are both transcendental over $F$
  2. $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are both algebraic over $F$, and have the same minimal polynomial over $F$

Now, I assume you can show that every element of $\mathbb{Q}$ is $\varnothing$-definable, and that every element of $\mathbb{Q}(i)$ is $\{i\}$-definable. So we only need to show the reverse inclusions. Let $\alpha\in\mathbb{C}$. If $\alpha$ is transcendental over $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp. $\mathbb{Q}(i)$), then $\alpha/2$ is also transcendental over $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp. $\mathbb{Q}(i)$), and thus by condition 1 above we may find an automorphism of $\mathbb{C}$ fixing $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp. $\mathbb{Q}(i)$) and taking $\alpha$ to $\alpha/2$. In particular, $\alpha$ is not $\varnothing$-definable (resp. $\{i\}$-definable).

If $\alpha$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp. $\mathbb{Q}(i)$), let $f(x)$ be its minimal polynomial. Irreducible polynomials over a subfield of $\mathbb{C}$ have distinct roots in $\mathbb{C}$, so, if $\deg f>1$, then $f$ has another root $\beta\neq\alpha$. Now by condition 2 we can find an automorphism fixing $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp. $\mathbb{Q}(i)$) and taking $\alpha$ to $\beta$. In particular, once again, $\alpha$ is not $\varnothing$-definable (resp. $\{i\}$-definable). Thus, for $\alpha$ to be $\varnothing$-definable (resp. $\{i\}$-definable), $f$ must have degree 1; say $f=\lambda x+\mu$. Then $\alpha=-\mu/\lambda$, and hence lies in $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp. $\mathbb{Q}(i)$), as desired.


Edit: In answer to Mitchell Spector's question below, it is worth pointing out that the proof above is, in a certain sense, very strong overkill. The existence of the desired automorphisms of $\mathbb{C}$ relies on the axiom of choice, but the desired result still holds in $\text{ZF}$. The main point is that quantifier elimination for $(\mathbb{C},+,\cdot)$ can be proven choicelessly. In particular, the type of an element $\alpha\in\mathbb{C}$ over $\varnothing$ (resp $\{i\}$) is uniquely determined by the set of polynomials over $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp $\mathbb{Q}(i)$), if any, that it satisfies. Since minimal polynomials of algebraic elements over a subfield of $\mathbb{C}$ exist (no need for choice here), we get that two elements of $\mathbb{C}$ have the same type over $F=\mathbb{Q}$ (resp $F=\mathbb{Q}(i)$) if and only if:

  1. They are both transcendental.
  2. They are both algebraic, and have the same minimal polynomial over $F$.

Thus we can use exactly the same argument as above; $\alpha$ will be definable over $\varnothing$ (resp $\{i\}$) if and only if it is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp $\mathbb{Q}(i)$) and the only root of its minimal polynomial, if and only if it lies in $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp $\mathbb{Q}(i)$), as desired.

For some related questions about how much of the model theory of $\text{ACF}$ (and also $\text{RCF}$) can be carried out without choice, see this recent question of Joel Hamkins on mathoverflow, and this earlier question on math.stackexchange.


Edit 2: As one final point, as Alex Kruckman notes in the comments below, it's worth pointing out that an analogous fact holds for any set of parameters; the definable closure of a subset $A\subseteq\mathbb{C}$ is precisely $\mathbb{Q}(A)$, the subfield of $\mathbb{C}$ generated by $A$. The argument for this is exactly the same as above! But, as Alex points out, this fact does not quite extend to the case of algebraically closed fields of characteristic $p>0$ – we use in a crucial way the fact that every irreducible polynomial over a field of characteristic $0$ is separable in the argument above, which is not in general the case for fields of characteristic $p$!

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    Do you happen to know the situation in ZF without the axiom of choice? It’s consistent with ZF that there are no wild automorphisms of the complex numbers. (You can even add the axiom of dependent choices, which is enough to develop the theory of Lebesgue measure.) – Mitchell Spector Aug 22 '21 at 05:57
  • @MitchellSpector your question is in fact extremely topical, as there was a great deal of discussion of some closely related questions on mathoverflow the other day! :) ... see also Alex's answer here for some related questions – Atticus Stonestrom Aug 22 '21 at 14:45
  • basically, as Alex writes there, one can prove quantifier elimination for $(\mathbb{C},\cdot,+)$ choicelessly; this will allow you to prove exactly the desired result in the post above, without appealing to choice. – the main point is that the type of an element of $\mathbb{C}$ over $\varnothing$ (resp ${i}$) is uniquely determined by the set of polynomials over $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp $\mathbb{Q}(i)$) that it satisfies. – Atticus Stonestrom Aug 22 '21 at 14:47
  • so we get an analogous situation. since any element has a minimal polynomial over a subfield $F\subseteq\mathbb{C}$ (no need for choice here), an element will be definable over $\varnothing$ (resp ${i}$) if and only if it is algebraic and its minimal polynomial over $\mathbb{Q}$ (resp $\mathbb{Q}(i)$) has a unique root, ie if and only if its minimal polynomial has degree $1$, if and only if it lies in the field itself, which is precisely the desired result :) – Atticus Stonestrom Aug 22 '21 at 14:49
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    It might be worth noting that the general result (which your proof shows): Given a set $A$ from an algebraically closed field of characteristic $0$, an element is definable over $A$ if and only if it is in the subfield generated by $A$. It's also interesting to note how the situation changes in characteristic $p$: here the definable elements are the elements of the perfect closure of the field generated by $A$ (I.e., those elements $b$ such that some $p^n$-th power of $b$ lies in the field generated by $A$). – Alex Kruckman Aug 22 '21 at 15:22
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    AtticusStonestrom @AlexKruckman Thanks for the informative comments. – Mitchell Spector Aug 22 '21 at 19:58
  • @AlexKruckman a good point, thank you – have edited to include! :) – Atticus Stonestrom Aug 22 '21 at 21:47