So say if you have a sequence defined as, for $a\in\mathbb{Z}$, $$ c_n = \binom{a}{0} \binom{a}{n} - \binom{a}{1} \binom{a}{n-1} + \cdots+ (-1)^n \binom{a}{n} \binom{a}{0} = \sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i \binom{a}{i} \binom{a}{n-i}$$ How would you find the generating function? It's easy to see that for $n = 2k+1$, $c_n= 0$, and for $n = 2k$ we can make something like this: $$ 2 \sum_{i=0}^k \binom{a}{i} \binom{a}{2k-i} + (-1)^{k+1} \binom{a}{k+1} $$ If $k > a$ we can use Voldemort's identity and turn the sum into $2 \binom{2a}{2k}$ That makes it more specific though so possibly I'm looking at it too narrowly
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5"Voldemort's identity"!? – Zev Chonoles Jun 16 '13 at 23:16
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Also, please see here for how to typeset common math expressions with MathJax, and see here for how to use Markdown formatting. – Zev Chonoles Jun 16 '13 at 23:17
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3Perhaps a corollary of Dumbledore's Lemma – Robert Israel Jun 16 '13 at 23:17
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2I think you mean Vandermonde. And I am not going to be able to watch the Harry Potter movies again without trying to look for hidden convolution and circulant references. – Ron Gordon Jun 17 '13 at 00:28
1 Answers
Here we show how to find the exponential generating function of the sum as requested by the OP.
Observe that when we multiply two exponential generating functions of the sequences $\{a_n\}$ and $\{b_n\}$ we get that $$ A(z) B(z) = \sum_{n\ge 0} a_n \frac{z^n}{n!} \sum_{n\ge 0} b_n \frac{z^n}{n!} = \sum_{n\ge 0} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{(n-k)!} a_k b_{n-k} z^n\\ = \sum_{n\ge 0} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} a_k b_{n-k} \frac{z^n}{n!} = \sum_{n\ge 0} \left(\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} a_k b_{n-k}\right)\frac{z^n}{n!}$$ i.e. the product of the two generating functions is the generating function of $$\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} a_k b_{n-k}.$$
Now re-write your sum as follows: $$Q_n = \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k {a\choose k}{a\choose n-k} = \frac{1}{n!} \sum_{k=0}^n{n\choose k} \frac{ (-1)^k \times a!}{(a-k)!} \frac{a!}{(a-(n-k))!}$$ Now we clearly have $$A(z) = \sum_{q=0}^a \frac{(-1)^q \times a!}{(a-q)!}\frac{z^q}{q!} = \sum_{q=0}^a {a\choose q} (-z)^q = (1-z)^a.$$ Similarly we get $$B(z) = \sum_{q=0}^a \frac{a!}{(a-q)!}\frac{z^q}{q!} = \sum_{q=0}^a {a\choose q} z^q = (1+z)^a.$$ It follows that the value of the original sum is given by $$ \frac{1}{n!} \times n! [z^n] A(z) B(z) = [z^n] (1-z)^a (1+z)^a = [z^n] (1-z^2)^a.$$ This means that $$Q_n = \begin{cases} 0 \quad && \text{if} \quad n \quad \text{is odd} \\ (-1)^{n/2} {a\choose n/2} \quad && \text{if} \quad n \quad \text{is even.} \\ \end{cases}.$$

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