I am totally confused with the following proof given in Simmons' Introduction to Topology and Modern Analysis book (page: 312): Screenshot
Suppose $x$ is an arbitrary element in an Banach algebra and $\sigma(x)$ denotes its "spectrum" then Simmon claims:
My Confusion. I am confused at the last line of the proof where he said
$x^n-\lambda 1$ is singular $\iff x-\lambda_i 1$ is singular for at least one $i$
I'm assuming singular means doesn't have a two sided inverse.
'$\implies$' direction is okay: because if every $x-\lambda_i 1$ does have a two sided inverse (i.e., invertible) then their product $x^n-\lambda 1$ also has a two sided inverse.
But how did he claim reverse direction?? I mean if some $x-\lambda_i 1$ is singular (i.e., doesn't have a two sided inverse) it doesn't mean their product also be singular (e.g. here is a counterexample of this fact (?) In this link $a$ and $b$ are not invertible but their product is invertible !)
Where am I making mistake? Can anyone please help me to clarify the above. Thanks.
EDIT Also I am really confused after noticing the link I mentioned. Doesn't that example show that the "reverse implication" in Simmon is not necessarily true?