The fundamental theorem of calculus in the fifth edition of Stewarts Calculus text is stated as:
Suppose $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$. Then:
1). If $g(x) = \int_a^x f(t)dt$, then $g'(x)=f(x)$
2). $\int_a^bf(x)dx=F(b)-F(a)$ where $F$ is any antiderivative of $f$.
So, when we interpret $g(x)$ as the function that tells us the "area so far" under the graph of $f$, I think $(1)$ is pretty straightforward... honestly, it seems like with all the brilliant minds that came before Newton/Leibniz that this is something that should have already been clearly understood.
So, the reason the FTC is so "amazing" is usually stated as "OMG, we can calculate the area under the integral by knowing the value of ANY of its antiderivatives at ONLY the two boundary points!"
However, I feel a bit cheated. We define the function $g(x)$ as a limit of Riemann sums that involve the entire curve. So yeah, it's going to give the entire area under the graph of $f$ from $a$ to $x$ even though we only plug $x$ into the function, but that's not to say the calculation of our function didn't involve the whole curve, you know?
After this, it follows quite directly from the mean value theorem that any two antiderivatives differ by a constant, and so we arrive at $(2)$.
Now, I hope I don't come off too sarcastic in this post, because I genuinely suspect that there is something that my feeble mind is not seeing that makes this more amazing, and that one of the more adequate thinkers that linger here can enlighten me.
edit:
antiderivatives and integrals are defined in very different ways. The fact that
$\int_a^x f(t)dt$
is an antiderivative of $f(x)$ is very cool.