I want to understand where am I wrong in the following reasoning.
It is known that $A(x)\vdash\forall x A(x)$ and that $ \forall x A (x) \vdash A (t) $ if $ t $ is free for $ x $ in $ A (x ) $, which implies that $ \forall x A (x) \vdash A (x) $. Moreover, there is an axiom $ \forall x A (x) \supset A (t) $ with the same condition on $ t $, which also implies $ \forall x A (x) \supset A (x) $, but at the same time as far as I understood, the converse, that $ A (x) \supset \forall x A (x) $ is not always true in predicate calculus, namely, it may not be true if x varies in the output of $ A (x) \vdash \forall x A (x) $. I do not understand why this is so, if, in fact, there is no difference between the statements $ A (x) $ and $ \forall x A (x) $ except that in the first statement $ x $ can be contained freely, but in the second it cannot. That is, these statements should be equivalent. What's the catch?
Thank you