In what follow let $R$ be a commutative ring with unit and let $S_1$ and $S_2$ two saturated multiplicative subsets (by saturated I mean that in the localization morphism $i_{S_i} \colon R \to S_i^{-1}R$ the elements $a \in R$ such that $i_{S_i}(a)$ is invertible are exactly and only those in $S_i$).
We have the following pullback diagram of rings $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} P @>{\pi_1}>> S_1^{-1}R \\ @V{\pi_2}VV @VV{j_{S_1,S_1\cdot S_2}}V \\ S_2^{-1}R @>>{j_{S_2,S_1\cdot S_2}}> (S_1 \cdot S_2)^{-1}R \end{CD} $$ where the morphisms $j_{S_i,S_1 \cdot S_2}$ are the obvious localizations morphisms and $S_1 \cdot S_2$ is the multiplicative set made of the products of elements of $S_1$ and $S_2$.
Here are the questions:
1. Is it always true that $P$ is of the form $S^{-1}R$ for some multiplicative set $S \subseteq R$
I've proven that this is true if $R$ is a unique factorization domain, but the proof relies on the existance of a canonical representation of the elements of the $S^{-1}R$ as fractions of coprime elements of $R$.
2. Is $P$ of the form $S^{-1}R$ if $R$ is an integral domain (even if it is not a UFD)?.
Thanks in advance for any help.