I want to show that the infimum of the set of all numbers of the form $\big(1+\frac{1}{n}\big)^n$ where $n=1,2,3,...$ is $2$.
I thought I can prove this if I can show that $$\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} > 1 \quad \forall n$$ where $a_n=\big(1+\frac{1}{n}\big)^n$
$$\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=\frac{ \bigg(1+ \frac{1}{n+1}\bigg)^{n+1} }{ \bigg(1+ \frac{1}{n}\bigg)^{n} } = \frac{ \bigg( \frac{n+2}{n+1}\bigg)^{n+1} }{ \bigg(\frac{n+1}{n}\bigg)^{n} } = \frac{ \bigg( \frac{n+2}{n+1}\bigg)^{n} }{ \bigg(\frac{n+1}{n}\bigg)^{n} } \bigg( \frac{n+2}{n+1}\bigg) = \bigg( \frac{(n+2)n}{(n+1)(n+1)}\bigg)^{n}\bigg(\frac{n+2}{n+1}\bigg) = \bigg(\frac{n^2+2n}{n^2+2n+1}\bigg)^{n}\bigg(\frac{n+2}{n+1}\bigg)$$
The first ratio is less than $1$, while the second one is greater than $1$.
I'm stuck at this point. Someone, please help.