-3

I know the solution to this question:

test basis step:
p(1)= 1x1!=(1+1)!-1
1x1 = (2)!-1
1 = 2-1, true

assume n=k
p(k) = 1x1! + 2x2! + ... + kxk! = (k+1)!-1

proof that if p(k) then p(k+1)
p(k+1) = 1x1! + 2x2! + ... + kxk! + (k+1)x(K+1)! = [(k+1)+1]!-1

here is where I get lost how did we get from:
p(k+1) = (k+1)!-1 + (k+1)x(k+1)! = (k+2)!-1
to
p(k+1) = (k+1)! x (1+k+1)-1 = (k+2)!-1

1 Answers1

1

$$p(k+1)=(k+1)!-1 + (k+1)\cdot (k+1)!$$ $$=(k+1)!\left[1+k+1\right] - 1$$ $$=(k+1)!\left(k+2\right) - 1$$ $$=(1\cdot2\cdot3.....(k+1)(k+2))-1$$ $$=(k+2)!-1$$