I know the solution to this question:
test basis step:
p(1)= 1x1!=(1+1)!-1
1x1 = (2)!-1
1 = 2-1, true
assume n=k
p(k) = 1x1! + 2x2! + ... + kxk! = (k+1)!-1
proof that if p(k) then p(k+1)
p(k+1) = 1x1! + 2x2! + ... + kxk! + (k+1)x(K+1)! = [(k+1)+1]!-1
here is where I get lost how did we get from:
p(k+1) = (k+1)!-1 + (k+1)x(k+1)! = (k+2)!-1
to
p(k+1) = (k+1)! x (1+k+1)-1 = (k+2)!-1