Consider the Bayesian linear model $y_i\sim N(x_i\beta,\sigma^2 ), i=1,\ldots,n$ where $$\sum_{i=1}^n x_i=0, \sum_{i=1}^n x_i^2 =1, \sum_{i=1}^n x_i y_i=\gamma $$ The prior for $\beta$ and the dummy variable $z$ is given by $$\pi (\beta \mid z)=(1-z)\delta_0(\beta ) + zN(\beta \mid 0,\tau ^{2}) $$$$\pi (z)=q^z(1-q)^{1-z}$$ Suppose $\sigma , \tau , q$ are all known and $\delta_0(\beta )$ is the indicator function which is 1 when $\beta=0$ and is $0$ otherwise. So, $\beta=0$ if $z=0$ and $\beta =N(0,\tau^2)$ if $z=1$.
(1) Find $p(y_1,\ldots,y_n\mid z=0)$
(2) By integrating out $\beta$, Find $p(y_{1},...,y_{n}\mid z=1)$
(3) Hence, find $P(z=1\mid y_{1},...,y_{n})$
(4) What is $P(z=1\mid y_{1},...,y_{n})$ when $\gamma =0$ and with large $n$
(5) Under the condition in (4), give an intuitive explanation why $P(z=1\mid y_{1},...,y_{n})$ takes this value when $n → ∞$.
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For the (1), my answer is $N(0,\sigma^2)(1-q)$
For the (2), my answer is $N(0,\tau^2)q$ - I am not sure about this one.
I have trouble to get the answers from (3) to (5), please help me to solve this problems and any input will be grateful and I really appreciate your time and help!
\sigma ^{^{2}}
instead of\sigma^2
in MathJax code is very strange (and causes $\sigma ^{^{2}}$ to appear instead of $\sigma^2$). I suspect you're using one of those software packages that writes the code for you. Those often produce code that looks like something written by a lunatic. – Michael Hardy Jun 30 '21 at 17:31