Could you help me solve this theorem? I don't understand how I can taste him.
Prove: For every a and b integers and every m positive integer, if a ≡ b (mod m), then a² ≡ b² (mod m).
Could you help me solve this theorem? I don't understand how I can taste him.
Prove: For every a and b integers and every m positive integer, if a ≡ b (mod m), then a² ≡ b² (mod m).