Let $g_n,g \in L^2[a,b]$ and we define $$G_n(x)=\int_a^x g_n(t) \,dt, \quad\quad G(x) = \int_a^x g(t) \,dt.$$ If $g_n$ converges weakly to $g$, that is $\langle g_n,f\rangle \rightarrow \langle g,f \rangle$ for all $f \in L^2[a,b]$, with $\langle g,f \rangle = \int_a^b g \bar{f}$, and $\sup ||g_n||_2$ is finite, then $G_n$ converges uniformly to $G$.
My initial thought of this problem was naive. Here was my argument, we have $|G_n-G| = |\int_a^x (g_n-g)| < \epsilon$ since we can take $f=1$ and use the weak convergence assumption. But of course, this does not work since this would only prove a pointwise convergence. I know I need to make use of $\sup||g_n||_2$ somewhere but I am stuck. Any help is welcomed.