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Let $E$ be a Borel subset of $\mathbb R^d$ and $m$ be the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R^d$ and by definition of density (Folland real analysis 2nd edition ,Exercise 25 in page 100):

$$D_E(x):= \lim_{r\to 0} \frac{m(E\cap B(x,r))}{m(B(x,r))}$$

I wonder if we can replace the open balls $B(x,r)$'s (centered at the origin with radius $r$) by any neighborhoods of $x$ and still get the same "density". Namely, let $N_n(x)$ be a sequence of neighborhoods of $x$ (we don't even assume they are open, as long as each of them contains an open neighborhood of $x$) such that

$$\lim_{n\to \infty} m(N_n(x))=0.$$

Do we necessarily have

$$D_E(x):= \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{m(E\cap N_n(x))}{m(N_n(x))}?$$

No One
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2 Answers2

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As stated, no. If $a < b$ are two points in $\mathbb R$, then $$ N_n := B_{1/n}(a) \cup B_{1/n}(b) $$ is a neighborhood of $a$. Now take the interval $E= (-\infty,\frac{a+b}{2})$ and compute $$ \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{m(E\cap N_n)}{m(N_n)} $$


A classic text on derivations is:

Hayes, C. A.; Pauc, C. Y., Derivation and martingales, Ergebnisse der Mathematik und ihrer Grenzgebiete. 49. Berlin-Heidelberg-New York: Springer-Verlag. VII, 203 p. (1970). ZBL0192.40604.

GEdgar
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Unfortunately, the geometry of your neighborhoods can have quite a bit of influence. As one simple example, take the subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ given by $S = \{(x, y) \mid y \geq 0\}.$ Then, if you take Folland's ball based definition, the density at $(0, 0)$ will be $1/2.$ But if we take less symmetric neighborhoods, you can see how to force more than $1/2$ the area of the neighborhood to be in the upper half plane, even in the limit.