Is there a first principle method for proving that a closed set contains all its boundary points, based only on the definitions of the closed set and boundary points, without using the former's complementarity with the corresponding open set?
PROBLEM: Consider a closed set $A \subseteq \mathbb{R^{n}}$. Show that if $x^{0}$ is a boundary point of A, then $x^{0}$ belongs to A.
I have come up with the following proof:
PROOF: It is given that $x^{0}$ is a boundary point of $A$, i.e., every open-ball $V_{x^{0}}$ around $x^{0}$ contains points both inside and outside $A$. Of the points inside $A$ lying in $V_{x^{0}}$ , a sequence $\{x^{k}\}$ can be constructed that converges to $x^{0}$ as $k \to \infty$. Since $A$ is a closed set, then $x^{k} \to x^{0} \implies x^{0} \in A$. Hence, proved.
Is this proof correct? Can we assert that there would be a sequence in $A\cap V_{x^{0}}$ that would converge to $x^{0}$ in the first place?