Let $0<x<1$ and $f(x)=x^{x^{x^{x}}}$ then we have :
Claim :
$$f''(x)\geq 0$$
My attempt as a sketch of partial proof :
We introduce the function ($0<a<1$):
$$g(x)=x^{x^{a^{a}}}$$
Second claim : $$g''(x)\geq 0$$
We have :
$g''(x)=x^{x^{a^{a}}+a^a-2}(a^{\left(2a\right)}\ln(x)+x^{a^{a}}+2a^{a}x^{a^{a}}\ln(x)-a^{a}\ln(x)+2a^{a}+a^{\left(2a\right)}x^{a^{a}}\ln^{2}(x)-1)$
We are interested by the inequality :
$$(a^{\left(2a\right)}\ln(x)+x^{a^{a}}+2a^{a}x^{a^{a}}\ln(x)-a^{a}\ln(x)+2a^{a}+a^{\left(2a\right)}x^{a^{a}}\ln^{2}(x)-1)\geq 0$$
I'm stuck here .
As noticed by Hans Engler we introduce the function :
$$r(x)=x^{a^a}\ln(x)$$ We have :
$$r''(x)=x^{a^a - 2} ((a^a - 1) a^a \ln(x) + 2 a^a - 1)$$
The conclusion is straightforward the function $\ln(g(x))$ is convex so it implies that $g(x)$ is also convex on $(0,1)$.
Now starting with the second claim and using the Jensen's inequality we have $x,y,a\in(0,1)$:
$$x^{x^{a^{a}}}+y^{y^{a^{a}}}\geq 2\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{a^{a}}}$$
We substitute $a=\frac{x+y}{2}$ we obtain :
$$x^{x^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)}}}+y^{y^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)}}}\geq 2\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)}}}$$
Now the idea is to compare the two quantities :
$$x^{x^{x^{x}}}+y^{y^{y^{y}}}\geq x^{x^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)}}}+y^{y^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)}}}$$
We split in two the problem as :
$$x^{x^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)}}}\leq x^{x^{x^{x}}}$$
And :
$$y^{y^{y^{y}}}\geq y^{y^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^{\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)}}}$$
Unfortunetaly it's not sufficient to show the convexity because intervals are disjoint .
A related result :
It seems that the function :
$r(x)=x^x\ln(x)=v(x)u(x)$ is increasing on $I=(0.1,e^{-1})$ where $v(x)=x^x$ . For that differentiate twice and with a general form we have : $$v''(x)u(x)\leq 0$$ $$v'(x)u'(x)\leq 0$$ $$v(x)u''(x)\leq 0$$
So the derivative is decreasing on this interval $I$ and $r'(e^{-1})>0$
We deduce that $R(x)=e^{r(x)}$ is increasing . Furthermore on $I$ the function $R(x)$ is concave and I have not a proof of it yet .
We deduce that the function $R(x)^{R(x)}$ is convex on $I$ . To show it differentiate twice and use a general form like : $(n(m(x)))''=R(x)^{R(x)}$ and we have on $I$ :
$$n''(m(x))(m'(x))^2\geq 0$$
And :
$$m''(x)n'(m(x))\geq 0$$
Because $x^x$ on $x\in I$ is convex decreasing .
Conlusion :
$$x^{x^{\left(x^{x}+x\right)}}$$ is convex on $I$
The same reasoning works with $x\ln(x)$ wich is convex decreasing on $I$ .
Have a look to the second derivative divided by $x^x$
In the last link all is positive on $J=(0.25,e^{-1})$ taking the function $g(x)=\ln\left(R(x)^{R(x)}\right)$
Question :
How to show the first claim ?Is there a trick here ?
Ps:feel free to use my ideas .
to separate them. – River Li Jun 27 '21 at 01:14