$\overline{X}=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ is the sample mean and $S^2=\frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-\overline{X})^2$ is the sample variance. $X_1,...,X_n\sim N(\mu, \sigma^2)$ and independent.
I want to show that $\overline{X}$ and $S^2$ are independent.
I've already proven that $\overline{X}-X_i\sim N(0,\frac{n-1}{n}\sigma^2)$ and that $Cov(X_j-\overline{X},\overline{X}) = 0$.
But then I didn't know how to proceed. While searching for solutions, I found this document. Here it claims that I need to calculate the covariance matrix and then use the "multivariate normality" (I don't know what exactly they mean by that) so that $\overline{X}$ and $X=(X_1-\overline{X},...,X_n-\overline{X})^T$ are independent.
The rest is clear to me. I just want to understand the details to why $\overline{X}$ and $X$ are independent.