It is an evident fact that in general topology the intersection of two subsets $A$ and $B$ of some topological space $X$ is included in the intersection of their closures: $\overline{A\cap B}\subset \overline{A}\cap \overline{B}$ always holds by definition of the closure.
But the opposite inclusion is not generally true.
Of course if both subsets are themselves closed, i.e., if $A=\overline{A}$ and $B=\overline{B}$ the opposite inclusion hence the equality holds. Since
$\overline{A}\cap \overline{B}=A\cap B$, by taking the closure on both sides
on gets $\overline{\overline{A}\cap \overline{B}}=\overline{A\cap B}$.
Since the intersection of two closed sets is closed,
$\overline{\overline{A}\cap \overline{B}}=\overline{A}\cap \overline{B}$.
So one gets
$\overline{A}\cap \overline{B}=\overline{A\cap B}$.
This is a very general set up of topological spaces whether or not their topology is induced by a inner scalar product.
If in your Hilbert space setup $U$ and $V$ were in direct sum then the converse inclusion would hold since if $X=A\oplus A^\perp$ is the orthogonal sum of linear subspaces $A$, $A^\perp$, then both $A$ and $A^\perp$ are closed in $X$. This closure property would then hold for $U$, $U^\perp$, $V$,$V^\perp$ as well as for $A=U\oplus V$ and $B=A^\perp=U^\perp\oplus V^\perp$.
Unfortunately as you gently pointed me out , max_zorn, $U+V$ is a not a direct sum and one can not infer from the fact that $U$ (resp. $U^\perp$) and $V$ (resp $V^\perp$) are closed that their sum $U+V$ (resp. $U^\perp+V^\perp$) is also closed.
So the question remains fully open ...