Given a linear operator on normed vector spaces $T:\mathcal{D}(T)\subset X \rightarrow Y$, if it is continuous at one point $x_0 \in \mathcal{D}(T)$ then it is continuous for all points in $\mathcal{D}(T)$.
I am following Kreyszig intro to functional analysis, he uses boundedness iff continuous to prove this, which is a fine proof. I came up with another proof that I am curious to see if it is correct:
Since $T$ is continuous at $x_0$ for all $\epsilon > 0$ there exists $\delta>0$ such that $$||x_0-x||<\delta \implies ||Tx_0 - Tx|| < \epsilon.$$ By translation invariance of the norm (edit: here I mean the translation invariance of the induced distance under the norm), this implies $$||x_0+d-(x+d)||<\delta \implies ||T(x_0+d) - T(x+d)|| < \epsilon.$$ Since $d\in \mathcal{D}(T)$ is arbitrary, $x_0+d$ can be element in $\mathcal{D}(T)$ that we like. Hence, $T$ is continuous at $x_0+d$, whatever it may be.
I am worried about this proof, because it doesn't seem to use linearity?