Let $\vec{a},\vec{b}\in\mathbb{R}^3$ and $\vec{u},\vec{v}\in\mathbb{R}^n$ for some $n$. Most of the proofs I've seen of the equivalence of the different definitions of the cross product, namely that
$$\det \begin{pmatrix} \hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k} \\ u_x & u_y & u_z \\ v_x & v_y & v_z \end{pmatrix} = |\vec{u}||\vec{v}|\sin (\theta)\vec{n}$$
or of the equivalnce of the different definitions of the dot product, namely that
$$\sum u_iv_i = |\vec{u}||\vec{v}|\cos (\theta)$$
make use of geometrical arguments that aren't rigorous. Any rigorous proof needs to define precisely what $\theta$ is, and following the advice given in another post of this website, a proper way to define $\theta$ would be to first define $sin$ or $cos$ (say, by means of the exponential function $e^{ix}$) and defining the angle between two vectors $\theta$ so as to make any of the equations above trivially true, for example:
$$\theta =: \arccos\frac{\sum u_iv_i}{|\vec{u}||\vec{v}|}$$
The problem is that, once defined this way, it is not clear how the first equation would be proved. Similarly, if we defined $\theta$ so as to make the first equation trivially true (although such definition would only account for vectors in $\mathbb{R}^3$), it is not clear how the second equation would be proved.
How should $\theta$, the angle between two vectors, be defined so as to make it easy to prove both of the equations above?