I wanted to know Difference or relation b/w $ \exp(\theta i) $ and $\ e^ {\theta i} $.
So, I know $ exp(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!}$ and If we plug in $ x = \theta i $ and using taylor series, we get $ exp(\theta i ) = \cos(\theta) + \sin(\theta)i $ and this is usually written as $\ e^ {\theta i} $.
but,
To find $ 2 ^ {\theta i} $ We would normal write it as $ e ^ {\log(2)\theta i} => \cos(\log(2)\theta) + \sin(\log(2)\theta)i$ but $e$ in this case is $e = exp(1)$ not $exp(x)$. So, $ log(x) $ which we took in first step in the case is bascially $ log_{exp(1)}x $ and $e^{\theta i}$ is in fact $exp(1) ^ {\theta i} = (\sum_{i=0}^n \frac{1}{i!}) ^ {\theta i} $
So, How can we use the same result that we drived for $ exp(\theta i )$ for $e^{\theta i}$?
and are both below expressions are same? If yes how?
$$e^{\theta i} = exp(1) ^ {\theta i} = \biggr(\sum_{i=0}^n \frac{1}{i!}\biggr)^ {\theta i} $$ same as
$$ exp(\theta i) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(\theta i)^n}{n!}$$
or to simplify by taking $ \theta = 1 $ is $exp(1) ^ {i} => (\sum_{i=0}^n \frac{1}{i!}) ^ {i} $ same as $ exp(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{i^n}{n!}$
and I don't think we can use $\exp(x) = e^x$ for the imaginary part)