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While I was reading Dummit and Foote's celebrated Abstract Algebra book, I came across the definition of the polynomial ring $R[x]$ (where, for convenience, they assume that $R$ is a unital commutative ring with $1\ne 0$):

The polynomial ring $R[x]$ in the indeterminate $x$ with coefficients from $R$ is the set of all formal sums $a_n x^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+...+a_1 x+a_0$ with $n\ge 0$ and each $a_i \in R$.

This definition intrigued me because this is the way I am used to seeing polynomials defined in high school textbooks (and I don't think that it is the "correct" way to do it). The part that intrigues me is the following: what is formal about polynomials since we can pretty easily construct $R[x]$? For completeness, I will present below the construction that I am familiar with.

Let $R$ be a nontrivial unital commutative ring (we don't really need it to be commutative; I can't comment on whether we need it to be unital because I have only studied unital rings). Let us denote by $R^{\mathbb{N}}$ the set of sequences $(r_n)_{n\ge 0} \subset R$ of finite support. Without too much trouble we can show that $R^{\mathbb{N}}$ becomes a unital commutative ring with the following operations $$(r_n)_{n\ge 0}+(s_n)_{n\ge 0}=(r_n+s_n)_{n\ge 0}$$ $$(r_n)_{n\ge 0}(s_n)_{n\ge 0}=(t_n)_{n\ge 0}, \text{where } t_n=\sum_{i+j=n}r_is_j.$$
Then we only need to see that $r \mapsto (r, 0, 0, ...)$ is an injective unital ring homomorphism that allows us to think of $R$ as a subring of $R^{\mathbb{N}}$ (if we don't want to do this identification we may even construct this as a proper inclusion, but this is pretty tedious in my opinion and it is enough if we know that it may be done) and we are basically done if we denote $x:=(0, 1, 0, ...)$: we have obtained our ring $R[x]$.

Now, back to my question. I assume that the formal part consists of the indeterminate $x$ because the definition in Dummit and Foote's book (or in many other textbooks) doesn't really tell us what that indeterminate $x$ is. So, I suppose that if we restrict ourselves to this definition, then polynomials are indeed just some formal sums that magically turn out to have very good properties. But why would one want to do this if we can actually construct the polynomial ring and then there is nothing formal about polynomials? Is it just something done by mathematicians for convenience (because, after all, actually constructing the polynomial ring doesn't help us with anything but the fact that we know that this object can be constructed rigorously)?

Alexdanut
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Your definition of $R[x]$ is more rigorous, but depending on the student may be harder to intuit. The "formal sums" approach tries to form a bridge between concrete polynomial functions and the more abstract construction $R\leadsto R[x]$. This comes at the cost of some rigor (if we try to untangle what "formal sum" means, we wind up with ... exactly your definition), but may be easier to parse for some students.

Personally, my experience was the opposite: I found the "finite support sequences" definition much more satisfying. But I know that many students in the class I took were confused when the professor laid out that definition, and found the "formal sums" approach more congenial.

(For what it's worth I think we really see an "intuition gap" when we look at multiple indeterminates: the "formal sums" definition of $R[x,y]$ is, I think, likely to be substantially clear than the "two-dimensional array" definition to students new to abstract algebra.)

Noah Schweber
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  • Thank you! This is the reason that I also had in mind and my experience was the same as yours (I also liked the "finite support sequences" definition better), but I had always wondered why people keep refering to polynomials as being formal. – Alexdanut May 03 '21 at 22:24
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    Not clear precisely what you mean by "more rigorous", but the first definition as "formal sums" is not rigorous at all since it does not rigorously define what that means. It is subject to the same scathing critique Hankel gave on Cauchy's analogous informal descriptions here. Reading that will help one understand the need for such rigor (esp. in older times when set-theoretic foundations did not exist). – Bill Dubuque May 03 '21 at 22:26
  • @BillDubuque "the first definition as "formal sums" is not rigorous at all since it does not rigorously define what that means" That's exactly what I meant, I was just being polite(ish). – Noah Schweber May 03 '21 at 22:28
  • If that's what you mean then you should say that, because as written it can be read as implying that there is some rigor to the first definition. But there is none at all, and we shouldn't write things that might mislead readers into thinking the contrary. – Bill Dubuque May 03 '21 at 22:29
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    @Alexdanut See also the post linked in my prior comment for a nice historical example motivating the need for such rigor (here among eminent professional mathematicians - not high school students). For a more recent analogous example see this question about convergence for formal power series (esp. the comments and deleted answers). – Bill Dubuque May 03 '21 at 22:43