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I have tried to search similar posts to this, but unfortunately I may not have enough keywords for it. I'm looking for some help so check the following:

Given a prime number $p$, let $k, m \in\mathbb N \backslash\{0\}$ such that $k \equiv m(\bmod (p-1))$. Now given $ u, v \in\mathbb Z$ such that $u \equiv v\pmod p$, check that $u^k \equiv v^m\pmod p$.

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Rodri
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This is a direct result of Fermat's Little Thereom.

If $p$ is prime and $p\not \mid u$ then $u^{p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod p$.

We can conclude: For any $k \equiv m \pmod {p-1}$ then there is an $h \in \mathbb Z$ so that $m = k + h(p-1)$, Wolog lets assume $h \ge 0$ and $m \ge k$. Then $u^{m} = u^{h(p-1) + k} = (u^{p-1})^hu^k \equiv 1^h u^k\equiv u^k\pmod p$.

And if $p$ does divide $u$ then $u\equiv 0\pmod p$ and $u^k \equiv 0 \equiv u^j$ for all $k,j\in \mathbb N$.

Thus for any $u, v: u\equiv v\pmod p$ and $k,m: m\equiv k \pmod{p-1}$ then $u^k\equiv u^m \equiv v^m \pmod p$.

fleablood
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