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Update: Answer given uses Sard's Theorem. For no Sard's Theorem, see here: Does open map imply dimension of domain is greater than or equal to dimension of range? (don't use sard's theorem)


Let $N$ be smooth $n$-manifold. Let $M$ be smooth $m$-manifold. Let $F: N \to M$ be smooth map.

What I understand:

  • A. If $F$ is a submersion on $N$, then $n = \dim N \ge \dim M = m$.

  • B. If $F$ is a submersion on $N$, then $F$ is open.

  • C. If $F$ is smooth surjective, then $n = \dim N \ge \dim M = m$.

Questions:

  1. Actually I think if $F$ is a submersion at a point $p \in N$ but not necessarily at other points in $N$, then I think $\dim N \ge \dim M$ still because $n = \dim N = \dim T_pN \ge \dim T_{F(p)}M = \dim M = m$. Is this correct?

  2. Anyway, the main thing I wanted to ask is: if $F$ is open but not necessarily a submersion, then is $n = \dim N \ge \dim M = m$ still, i.e. under (B), we may relax (A) from submersion on $N$ to open?

All I know so far:

  • D. The image $F(N)$ is open in $M$ (I could be wrong, but I think this condition is equivalent to saying that $F$ is open), i.e. $F(N)$ is a smooth embedded $m$-submanifold of $M$.

  • E. The induced map $\tilde F: N \to F(N)$ is smooth and open.

    • E.1. $\tilde F$ is the unique map s.t. $\iota \circ \tilde F = F$, where $\iota: F(N) \to M$ is the inclusion map (which is smooth embedding if and only if $F(N)$ is a smooth embedded $k$-submanifold and so is I guess more than a smooth embedding since $k=m$. Update: I believe it's an open smooth embedding, i.e. an injective local diffeo.)
  • F. In re (C) and (D), i think codimension $0$ is pretty close to surjective at least when we're thinking about dimensions. Like how an open disk/disc in $\mathbb R^2$ is diffeomorphic to the whole of $\mathbb R^2$.

BCLC
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    For $D$: a map is open if it sends open subsets to open subsets. This - in general - is not equivalent to $f(N)$ being open. I have no counter example in the smooth case, but for example in the continuous case, there exist continuous surjections $[0,1] \to [0,1]^2$ that are not open maps. – Didier Apr 20 '21 at 09:49
  • @Didier Right thanks. I do remember there were some conditions where $F(N)$ open was equivalent to $F$ open. I think in the definition of that $F$ is a local diffeomorphism you cay say $F(N)$ open, $F$ open or $\dim N = \dim M$ as equivalent conditions. anyhoo thanks – BCLC Apr 20 '21 at 09:54

1 Answers1

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Here are answers for the two questions:

  1. You are perfectly right
  2. You are also right but this is more technical. Suppose $f : N^n \to M^m$ is a smooth map and $n < m$. Then every point of $N$ is a critical point (that is, $\mathrm{d}f$ is nowhere surjective). By Sard's theorem, $f(N) \subset M$ has zero measure. It follows that it cannot be open.
Didier
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  • thanks (can't upvote right now). so smooth & $n < m$ implies $F$ is nowhere a submersion implies $N =$ (all critical points of $F$) implies $F(N)=$ (all critical values of $F$) implies, by sard's theorem, that $F(N)$ has (lebesgue? i forgot sard's theorem already) measure zero implies $F(N)$ is not an open subset of $M$? – BCLC Apr 20 '21 at 10:03
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    The formuation of Sard's theorem can be misleading as there is no measure in general. But zero measure means "the intersection with any chart has zero Lebesgue-measure" and this in fact is an instrinsic statement. So the reasoning is $F(N)$ is equal to the set of critical values of $f$, so by Sard's theorem, $f(N)$ is of zero-measure in $M$, hence cannot be open. – Didier Apr 20 '21 at 10:05
  • (still can't upvote) So the rule is open implies positive measure? – BCLC Apr 20 '21 at 23:12
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    Yes, more exactly, if it is open, it can not have zero-measure. To see this, an open subset of $M$ contains a chart. And in this chart it has full measure. – Didier Apr 21 '21 at 06:49
  • ok thanks. i'm gonna ask in another post if you can do this without sard's theorem – BCLC Apr 21 '21 at 07:45
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    I think another proof can use the constant rank theorem but would be a bit messy – Didier Apr 21 '21 at 07:52
  • yeah i remember reading somewhere it's to do with that theorem or some other theorem of that category. anyhoo: here – BCLC Apr 21 '21 at 07:53