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The question is:

Given two vectors $\vec v, \vec u \ne 0$ and $\alpha$ scalar.
is there a vector $\vec w$ such that $\vec u \times \vec w = \vec v$ and $\vec u \cdot \vec w = \alpha $?
In cases that there isn't such a vector $\vec w$, explain why.
In cases that there exists $\vec w$, find it.

My Work:
In order to get some idea on how to do the proof, I tried to take a simple example with coordinations:
$\vec u = (1,1,1)$, $\vec w = (1,0,1)$, then $\alpha = 2$, and $\vec v = \begin{vmatrix}i&j&k\\1&1&1\\1&0&1\end{vmatrix}=(1,0,-1)$
now the question is if I change $\alpha$ or $\vec v$ or $\vec u$, will I be able to find a $\vec w$?
So let's try $\alpha = 3$, now $\vec w$ can be $(1,1,1)$ or $(2,0,1$) ... (for the dot product).
but in the cross product, I can notice that $\vec w$ cannot be equal to $\vec u$ otherwise we get $\vec v=0$.
so I need $\vec v = (1,0,-1)=\begin{vmatrix}i&j&k\\1&1&1\\w_1&w_2&w_3\end{vmatrix}=(w_3-w_2,w_1-w_3,w_2-w_1)$ So I need to find $w_1+w_2+w_3=3$.
But I really just didn't continue here because even if I found it, I don't see myself reaching the proof or atleast getting an idea of how to generalize things, and thought that I'm in somewhat wrong direction or I'm not seeing something important.

After that I tried to use $\vec u, \vec v$ to express $\vec w$ (Just because that's the only way to generalize a vector $\vec w$).
So if I choose lets say: $\vec w = \vec u - \vec v$ I would get $\vec v = \vec u \times (\vec u - \vec v)=\vec u\times \vec u-\vec u \times\vec v = -\vec u \times \vec v$. and again I couldn't find out how to make it equal to $\vec v$, and on top of that I would need to check that it works with the scalar $\alpha$ and the dot product, so I'm a little lost.

End of my work

I would really appreciate any hints or feedback about my two approaches and if they will bring me somewhere, and any pushes in the right direction and help will be awesome, thanks in advance to everyone.

Arctic Char
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Pwaol
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    Hint: observe that we always have that $;\vec u\times\vec w;$ is perpendicular (=orthogonal) to both $;\vec u,,\vec w;$ ... – DonAntonio Apr 17 '21 at 07:55
  • @DonAntonio Thanks for the hint, could that be implying that I should work it out with the dot product? like if $\vec v = \vec u \times \vec w$ then $\vec v \cdot \vec w=0$ and $\vec v \cdot \vec u = 0$ and try to reach conclusions from here? – Pwaol Apr 17 '21 at 07:58
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    I'd say that first you must choose $;\vec v;$ s.t. $;\vec u\perp\vec v;$ . This is the very first. Thus, it could be any of $;\vec v=(k,0,-k);$ , or $;\vec v=(0,k,-k);$ and etc. (observe that the more zeros there are the easier it gets...), for any $;k\in\Bbb R;$ . With that you could already begin to work on $;\vec w;$, and I'd try to push to the end dealing with the dot product. Try to choose $;\vec wq;$ with – DonAntonio Apr 17 '21 at 08:02
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    The above already answers partially the question: "given two vectors $;\vec v,,\vec u\neq\vec 0;$ ...", since the answer is "no, it must be $;\vec u\perp\vec v;$ ..." – DonAntonio Apr 17 '21 at 08:03
  • @DonAntonio I couldn't quite get the part where $\vec v = (k,0,-k)$ or $\vec v = (0,k,-k)$... etc, I can see that $\vec v$ can be Anything as long as $\vec v \cdot \vec u = 0$. like if $\vec u = (1,2,3)$ then $\vec v = (1,1,-1)$ will also be perpendicular to it. And I'm wondering if I chose $\vec v = (k,0,-k)$ that's still a proof for a specific value. Did I understand it wrongly or was it just to give me intuition on how to move on to finding $\vec w$? – Pwaol Apr 17 '21 at 08:30
  • The post really answers my question, but I would love to ask where does $\vec u$ and $\vec v$ need to be perpendicular in the given equation in the answer about $\vec w$. ? like if they weren't perpendicular the equation will also work so I'm wondering what's happening there – Pwaol Apr 17 '21 at 08:57
  • @Jose Carlos Santos Why did you close this question ? – DonAntonio Apr 17 '21 at 10:02
  • It was probably because I have accepted that it answers my question, didn't know it automatically closes my question, but I have a couple more question about the answer... should I ask a new question instead later? – Pwaol Apr 17 '21 at 10:16
  • I just can't understand it... there is written that there's an old question that is like yours...but it is not exactly the same, though pretty similar. – DonAntonio Apr 17 '21 at 10:50

1 Answers1

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As said in the comments by DonAntonio, a necessary condition for the equation $$\vec u\times \vec{w}=\vec v$$ is that $\vec u,\vec v$ are perpendicular, since $\vec u\times\vec w$ is perpendicular to both $\vec u,\vec w$. It's not that the equation doesn't make sense, but if $\vec u,\vec v$ are not perpendicular, then the equation simply doesn't have a solution, since the existence of a solution $$\vec u\times\vec w=\vec v$$ implies that $$\vec u\cdot\vec v=\vec u\cdot(\vec u\times\vec w)=0$$ that is, $\vec u,\vec v$ are perpendicular.

Now, if $\vec u,\vec v\neq0$ are perpendicular, then the three vectors $$\vec u,\vec v,\vec u\times\vec v$$are three perpendicular vectors in $\mathbb R^3$, therefore they form a basis for $\mathbb R^3$ (in general, in a vector space $V$ with a scalar product $\cdot$, a family of $n=\dim V$ non zero, pairwise orthogonal vectors form a basis for $V$). So, a solution $\vec w$ can be expressed as a unique linear combination $$\vec w=\delta\vec u+\beta\vec v+\gamma(\vec u\times\vec v)$$ then $$\vec u\times\vec w=\delta\underbrace{(\vec u\times\vec u)}_{=0}+\beta(\vec u\times\vec v)+\gamma \vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)=\star$$Now, it is a property of the vector product that $\vec a\times(\vec b\times\vec c)=(\vec a\cdot\vec c)\vec b-(\vec a\cdot\vec b)\vec c$. In this case, set $\vec a=\vec b=\vec u$ and $\vec c=\vec v$ and use that $\vec u\cdot\vec v=0$, so you get $$\vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)=-\|u\|^2\vec v$$ so we conclude that $$\star=-\|u\|^2\gamma\vec v+\beta(\vec u\times\vec v)$$ which is equal to $\vec v$ only for $\beta=0$ and $\gamma=-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}$. So $\vec w$ must be in the form $$\delta\vec u-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}(\vec u\times\vec v)\rightarrow\vec u\cdot\vec w=\delta\|u\|^2-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}\underbrace{\vec u\cdot(\vec u\times\vec v)}_{=0}=\delta\|u\|^2$$so $\vec u\cdot\vec w=\alpha$ only for $\delta=\frac{\alpha}{\|u\|^2}$. Therefore if $\vec u,\vec v$ are perpendicular, non zero vectors, a solution to $\vec u\times\vec w=\vec v$ and $\vec u\cdot\vec w=\alpha$ exists and is $$\vec w=\frac{\alpha}{\|u\|^2}\vec u-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}(\vec u\times\vec v)$$

Edit Regarding the notation: $\|u\|^2$ is $u\cdot u$, so not exactly the length of the vector, but its square power.

Regarding $\vec u\times\vec w$. We said that $\vec w$ is in the form $\frac{\alpha}{\|u\|^2}\vec u-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}(\vec u\times\vec v)$, so $$\vec u\times\vec w=\vec u\times\left(\frac{\alpha}{\|u\|^2}\vec u-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}(\vec u\times\vec v)\right)=\frac{\alpha}{\|u\|^2}\underbrace{\vec u\times\vec u}_{=0}-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}\vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)$$ so we need to prove that $$-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}\vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)=\vec v$$ Now, if $\vec u=(u_1,u_2,u_3)$ and $\vec v=(v_1,v_2,v_3)$, then $\vec u\times\vec v$ is defined in coordinates as follows $$\vec u\times\vec v=\begin{pmatrix} u_2v_3-u_3v_2\\ u_3v_1-u_1v_3\\ u_1v_2-u_2v_1 \end{pmatrix}$$ and $$\vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)=\begin{pmatrix} u_2(u_1v_2-u_2v_1)-u_3(u_3v_1-u_1v_3)\\ u_3(u_2v_3-u_3v_2)-u_1(u_1v_2-u_2v_1)\\ u_1(u_3v_1-u_1v_3)-u_2(u_2v_3-u_3v_2) \end{pmatrix}$$ here you simplify the coordinates for $\vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)$ using the hypotesis that $\vec u,\vec v$ are perpendicular, that is, $u_1v_1+u_2v_2+u_3v_3=0$. They are all done in the same way, so consider just the first coordinate $u_2(u_1v_2-u_2v_1)-u_3(u_3v_1-u_1v_3)$: $$u_2(u_1v_2-u_2v_1)-u_3(u_3v_1-u_1v_3)=u_2u_1v_2-u_2^2v_1-u_3^2v_1+u_3u_1v_3=-(u_1^2+u_3^2)v_1+u_1(u_2v_2+u_3v_3)=\star$$now you use $\vec u\perp \vec v$, in particular $u_2v_2+u_3v_3=-u_1v_1$, so $$\star=-(u_1^2+u_3^2)v_1-u_1^2v_1=-\|u\|^2v_1$$In the same way you simply all the other coordinates of $\vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)$ and you get, as expected $$\vec u\times(\vec u\times \vec v)=-\|u\|^2\vec v\rightarrow-\frac{1}{\|u\|^2}\vec u\times(\vec u\times\vec v)=\vec v$$ which is what we wanted.

Alessandro
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  • Hi I appreciate the detailed answer! I got two questions if possible, the first is about the notation $||u||^2$ lets say, is it the same as $|u|^2$ (The length of the vector?), because I've never seen the double lines before. Second question is about the ending vector $\vec w$, I'm not doubting or something but when I tested it $\vec u \cdot \vec w= \alpha$ it worked, but when I do $\vec u \times \vec w$ I'm getting zero instead of $\vec v$, could you please check that? (most likely I'm messing up with cross products etc..) – Pwaol Apr 17 '21 at 14:19
  • Thanks alot, great explanation, I got one more question, but it's not about your answer specifically, but I'm trying to understand that using this rule: $(\vec u \times \vec V)\times \vec w = (\vec w \cdot \vec u) \vec v - (\vec v \cdot \vec w)\vec v$, when we substitute $\vec u, \vec w$ I think we would get the same $\vec w$ that you found in your answer. (just like here in this answer https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1683996/determining-an-unknown-vector-from-its-cross-and-dot-product-with-known-vector).. – Pwaol Apr 17 '21 at 16:07
  • I'm just trying to understand the logic of why is it true, and how does doing a cross product twice link to your answer and explanation. Sorry for asking such a long question, I have pretty much understood your answer and it's amazing, so if you don't feel like looking there and connecting it it's alright and I'm thankful anyway :) – Pwaol Apr 17 '21 at 16:09
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    Well, in my solution I too apply the cross product twice. I don't think there is a deeper link between my solution and the one in the other question, or, at least, none I can think of – Alessandro Apr 17 '21 at 16:34