Let $(V,g)$ and $(W,h)$ be scalar product spaces, and let $A:V\to W$ be linear. We define $A^{\dagger}:W\to V$ by $$A^{\dagger}=S\circ A^*\circ\mathcal{F}$$ where $S$ is the sharp map corresponding to $g$ and $\mathcal{F}$ is the flat map corresponding to $h$.
Side note for more clarity: sharp map is the inverse of the flat map, and the flat map corresponding to a scalar product is defined as $F(v)(w)=g(v,w)$.
There's a theorem I'm looking at in the book: With the above setup, if $V=W$, then $\det A^{\dagger}=\det A $. The proof goes like this:
With $\mathcal{F}=F$, we have $S=\mathcal{F}^{-1}$, so the result follows from (theorems referenced from earlier chapters).
I'm confused about whether this should necessarily be true. If a single vector space can admit more than one scalar product, won't that cause a problem? Because then the flat maps won't necessarily match.