In Section 1.4 of the book "Partial Differential Equations in Action: From Modelling to Theory" by Sandro Salsa, I encountered the following proposition (rephrased):
Let $\Omega$ be a bounded, open, connected set in $\mathbb{R}^n$. Consider a sequence of functions $u_m \in C^1(\overline{\Omega})$ (the notation here means $u_m$ has continuous partials that can be extended continuously up to $\partial \Omega$). If $u_m(x_0)$ converges at some $x_0\in \Omega$, and $\nabla u_m$ converges uniformly to some $F \in C^1(\overline{\Omega})$ , then $u_m$ converges uniformly to some $u \in C^1(\Omega)$ , with $\nabla u = F$.
My attempt at proof: The uniform convergence of $\nabla u_m$ implies uniform boundedness of $\nabla u_m$. This would allow proving the equicontinuity of $u_m$ (which is both necessary and sufficient for establishing the result) by computing a line integral, IF the domain $\Omega$ has a nice shape, e.g. convex. For general domain $\Omega$, one could still manage to prove the equicontinuity for some $\epsilon$ distance away from the boundary, by covering with small balls, but it doesn't seem possible to extend it all the way to the boundary. For example, consider the domain in this example.
Question: how does one prove this proposition in general? (Or does it even hold in general?)