Problem
Let $G$ be a strongly connected directed graph with $n$ vertices, and let $d(v)$ denote the out-degree of vertex $v$. Let $M_G$ be a finite discrete-time homogeneous Markov chain defined over $G$ s.t. the vertices are the states of $M_G$. And for any two vertices $u,v$ probability of going to state $v$ from state $u$ is given by
$$
p_{uv} =
\begin{cases}
\frac{1}{d(u)} \text{ }\text{ if } u \to v \text{ is a directed edge in } G \\
0 \text{ }\text{ otherwise}
\end{cases}
$$
Let $h_{uv}$ denote the expected time (or number of steps) to reach $v$ from $u$. The hitting time $h$ of $M_G$ is $\max\limits_{u,v}\{h_{uv}\}$. Can $h$ be upper bounded just in terms of $n$ ?
What I know
- For connected undirected graphs, the hitting time is known to be upper bounded by $\mathcal{O}(n^3)$.
- For strongly connected directed graphs one can come up with instances with exponential hitting time (reference: https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/2908/cover-time-of-directed-graphs).
My approach
Let $m$ be the number of edges in $G$. Then $\frac{1}{d(v)} > \frac{1}{m}$. We define the following experiment: We have a biased coin that gives heads with probability $\frac{1}{m}$. We flip it till we get $n-1$ consecutive heads. Then the expected number of coin flips required is bounded from above by $m^n$ (reference: Expected number of tosses for two coins to achieve the same outcome for five consecutive flips). I argue $h$ is bounded from above by $m^n$ as well. For any arbitrary $u,v$ let the longest path $P$ from $u$ to $v$ be of length $l$ ($l\le n-1$). Expected number of steps required to reach $v$ from $u$ by such that the walk ends in $P$ is $\ge h_{uv}$. Let $P$ be $w_1 \to w_2\cdots \to w_{k}$ ($u=w_1,v=w_k$). The probability for going from $w_i$ to $w_{i+1}$ is $\frac{1}{d(w_i)} > \frac{1}{m}$. If the random walk at some point diverges from $P$ (makes a "wrong" choice), we are at some vertex $u^{'}$ and we argue similarly as we did for $u$.
In the biased coin flip experiment also we need $n-1$ "correct" choices (heads) to happen. And the probability of a correct choice in the experiment is $\frac{1}{m}$. Which is less than the probability of a "correct" choice ($\frac{1}{d(v)}$ for some $v$) in the random walk. Thus the expected number of coin flips is $\ge h$.
Is my approach flawed? If yes, is it possible to obtain a bound at all?
PS. I would highly appreciate a hint only or a nudge in a direction I can explore.