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Consider a real, continuous function $f$ defined on $[0,\infty)$.
1. If for any $x > 0$ $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f(n\cdot x) = 0$, does it mean that $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}f(x) = 0$ ?
2. If for any $x > 0$ $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f(n + x) = 0$, does it mean that $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}f(x) = 0$ ?
($n$ represents natural number)

Ivan Neretin
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Salcio
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  • As far as I understand that you mean once the sequence limit and once the limit of functions with the $\epsilon$-$\delta$-definition, $(2.)$ is not true, but it will take some time until I've written a counterexample. And I'm optimistic that this counterexample will also work for the first case, but I'm not sure yet. – mag Mar 29 '21 at 13:32
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    @brulemart arguing by contradiction do not give any insight to me (Warning: Careful usage of quantifiers is required). Can you give more details about your proposal? – DIEGO R. Mar 29 '21 at 14:23
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    Please clarify the "any $x$" part, do you mean some $x$ or all $x$? Note that if $x=\pi$ and $f(t)=\sin(t)$ then $f(n\cdot x) = \sin(n\cdot\pi) = 0$ for all integer $n$, but $\lim\limits_{t\to\infty}f(t)$ does not exist (values oscillate between $-1$ and $1$). Similarly, if $f(t)=\sin(\pi t)$ and $x=1$ then $f(n + x) =\sin(\pi(n + 1)) = 0$ for all integer $n$, but $\lim\limits_{t\to\infty}f(t)$ does not exist. – Mirko Mar 29 '21 at 15:31
  • "for any x" in this context means "for all x's" of course – Salcio Mar 29 '21 at 23:59
  • @DIEGOR. you're right, I misunderstood the question. I apologize. – Víctor Mar 31 '21 at 09:57

3 Answers3

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For (1), surprisingly the answer is affirmative:

Theorem. Let $f$ be a continuous function defined on $(0, \infty)$, and assume that $$ \lim_{\mathbb{N}\ni n\to\infty} f(nx) = 0 $$ for all $x > 0$. Then $$ \lim_{\mathbb{R}\ni x\to\infty} f(x) = 0. $$

(In fact, the continuity assumption on $f$ can be relaxed so as to encompass piecewise continuous functions.) The proof hinges on an application of Baire's category theorem called Croft's lemma:

Croft's Lemma. Let $U_1, U_2, \ldots$ be subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ such that the interior $\mathring{U}_j$ is unbounded above for each $j \geq 1$. Then the set $$ \mathcal{D} = \{ r \in \mathbb{R} : \text{for each $j \geq 1$, $n r \in U_j$ holds for infinitely many $n$} \} $$ is dense in $(0, \infty)$.

Its proof can be found in other posting in MSE. For instance, see this. Now let us see how this lemma helps prove the theorem:

Proof of Theorem. For the sake of proof by contradiction, assume that $f(x) \not\to 0$ as $x \to \infty$. Then there exists $\varepsilon > 0$ such that $$U = \{ x \in (0, \infty) : |f(x)| > \varepsilon\}$$ is not bounded above. Then by setting $U_j = U$ for all $j$ in Croft's lemma, we find that the set $$ \mathcal{D} = \{ x \in (0, \infty) : nx \in U \text{ infinitely often} \} $$ is dense in $(0, \infty)$. In particular, $\mathcal{D} \neq \varnothing$. However, for each $x \in \mathcal{D}$, the sequence $(f(nx))_{n\geq 1}$ cannot converge to $0$, contradicting the assumption on $f$. Therefore the desired claim follows.

Sangchul Lee
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With the test function (i.e. element of $C^\infty_c(\mathbb{R})$) $$\phi_b(x)=\begin{cases}\exp(b^2/(x^2-b^2),\qquad&x\in]-b,b[\\ 0,\qquad&x\notin]-b,b[ \end{cases}$$ for $b>0$ we define for $k\in\Bbb N$ $$\psi_k(x):=\phi_{1/k^2}(x-(k-1/k)), $$ which is a function with a bump of height $e^{-1}$, width $2/k^2$ and center in $k-1/k$ and zero elsewhere. Now consider the function $$f(x):=\sum_{k=1}^\infty\psi_k(x) $$ Regarding the second question: Let $x_0>0$ fixed and WLOG $x_0\leq1$. As $x_0$ contributes a constant shift for $f(n+x_0)$, in the case $x_0\neq1$ once $1-1/k-1/k^2$ has passed $x_0$ the function will never be anything else than zero. In the case $x_0=1$, the bump will never be above $n+x_0$ for $n$ big enough. So $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f(n + x_0) = 0$ is satisfied (with the sequence limit) but obviously not $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}f(x) = 0$.

mag
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  • I think that the second (i.e. the first question) part is not correct since fractional parts of $n*x_0$ are dense in $[0,1]$ for any irrational $x_0$. – Salcio Mar 29 '21 at 15:18
  • You're right, I was thinking to rational numbers all the time. I will remove the last part. – mag Mar 29 '21 at 15:31
  • Well, now, for a change, the first problem seems to be under question. I mean, I do not see how the function $f$ satisfies the condition. We should have $\lim f(n\cdot x) = 0$ as $n->\infty$ for any x. – Salcio Mar 29 '21 at 16:14
  • The proof starts with 'Let $x_0>0$ fixed' which means arbitrary $x_0$ and then shows $f(n+x_0)\to0$ for $n\to\infty$. So it is proofed for ervery $x_0$. I don't see the problem. – mag Mar 29 '21 at 16:40
  • I was talking about the first question (1). Somehow, you changed the order in which you answer these questions. In words, I do not see how the top part of your answer handles the first question. Why $f(n\cdot x)$ tends to $0$ for any $x$ ? – Salcio Mar 29 '21 at 16:44
  • As in the comment above: you were right about my second part (regarding question 1.), that it was not correct. That's why I removed it and there is no more answer to question 1. left from me. The remaining answer is only for question 2. – mag Mar 29 '21 at 16:49
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I will give contra-example for hypothesis 2.

For any closed interval $I=[a,b]$ define "impulse" function $h(\cdot; I)$ to be any continuous function that is zero outside the interval $I$ and that has maximum $1$ on the interval $I$, e.g. $$ h(x;I) = \max\left\{ 1 - \frac{2}{b-a}\left|x-\tfrac 1 2 (a+b)\right| ,0 \right\}. $$

Contra-example to claim 2: Consider the sequence of intervals $$ I_n = [n+2^{-n},n + 2^{1-n}] $$ and the function $$ f(x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty h(x; I_n). $$ This function is not convergent as $f(a_n)=1$ for the sequence of the midpoints $$ a_n = n + 3 \cdot 2^{-n+1} $$ of the intervals $I_n$, but for any $x>0$ there is at most one $n$ such that $x+n \in I_k$ for some $k\in \mathbb N$.

Edit: As noted by @SangchulLee the following contra-example fails.

Contra-example to claim 1: The construction of this contra-example is analogous, we take into account the fact that $\log(n \cdot x) = \log(n) + \log(x)$. Consider the sequence of intervals $$ J_n = [\log(n)+2^{-n+1},\log(n) + 2^{-n}] $$ and the function $$ g(x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty h(x; J_n). $$ Note that $$\log(n+1)-\log(n) = \log(1+1/n) > 2/n > 2^{-n},$$ so the intervals $J_n$ are disjoint. It can also be seen that for any $x>0$ there is at most one $n$ such that $\log(x)+\log(n) \in J_k$ for some $k\in \mathbb N$.

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    In fact, the answer to Claim 1 is YES. To refute your alleged counter-example, let me briefly explain why it can fail. (To show that this construction actually fails, we need a deep result in analysis. So, let me only illustrate where it may go wrong.) In Case 2, both $\bigcup_n I_n$ and the sequence $(x+n){n\geq1}$ are "1-periodic" in a loose sense, hence it is possible to make them "out of sync". In Case 1, however, both $\bigcup{n\geq 1} J_n$ and $(x+\log n)_{n\geq 1}$ has smaller gaps as $n$ increases, which opens up the possibility of infinitely many overlaps for cleverly chosen $x$. – Sangchul Lee Jan 13 '23 at 08:33
  • @SangchulLee Thanks a lot for your observation. I'm really impressed by the proof you provided! – Pavel Kocourek Jan 13 '23 at 12:05