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In the book by Andre Weil, titled : Number theory for Beginners, is given on page 4,5 theorem #II.1 regarding a set M i.e. closed under subtraction. There are also two corollaries to the same, followed by another theorem #III.1.

I think the closest other post (found only one) on the same topic are: a, that too was in search of something like the book here states (please correct me if wrong).


Theorem II.1. Let $M$ be a non-empty set of integers, closed under subtraction. Then there exists a unique $m>0$ such that $M$ is the set of all multiples of $m: M=\{mz\}_{z\in Z} = mZ$.

Proof. If $x \in M$, then, by assumption, $0 = x - x \in M$ and $- x = 0 -x\in M$. If also $y \in M$, then $y+x = y -(-x) \in M$, so that $M$ is also closed under addition. If $x \in M$ and $nx \in M$, where $n$ is any positive integer, then $(n + 1)x = nx + x\in M$, therefore, by induction, $nx\in M$ for all $ n > 0$, hence also for all $n\in \mathbb{Z}$.
Finally, all linear combinations of elements of $M$ with integral coefficients are in $M$; as this property of $M$ obviously implies that $M$ is closed under addition and subtraction, it is equivalent with our assumption on $M$.
If $M=\{0\}$, the theorem is true with $m = 0$. If not, the set of elements $>0$ in $M$ cannot be empty; take for $m$ the smallest one.
All multiples of $m$ are then in $M$. For any $x\in M$, apply the lemma and write $x=my + r$ with $0\leq r \lt m$; then $r = x - my$ is in $M$. In view of the definition of m, this implies $r = 0, x = my$. Therefore $M=mZ$.
Conversely, since $m$ is the smallest element $\gt 0$ in $mZ$, it is uniquely determined when $M$ is given.

Corollary 1. Let $a,b,...,c$ be integers in any {finite) number. Then there is a unique integer $d\ge 0$ such that the set of all linear combinations $ax + by+... + cz$ of $a,b,...,c$ with integral coefficients $x,y,... ,z$ is the set of all multiples of $d$.

Proof. Apply theorem II. 1 to that set.

Corollary 2. Assumptions and notations being the same as in corollary 1, $d$ is a divisor of each one of the integers $a,b,...,c$, and every common divisor of these integers is a divisor of $d$.

Proof. Each one of the integers $a,b,...,c$ belongs to the set of their linear combinations. Conversely, every common divisor of $a, b,..., c$ is a divisor of every one of their linear combinations, hence in particular of $d$.

Definition. The integer $d$ defined in the corollaries of theorem II.1 is called the greatest common divisor (or in short the g.c.d.) of $a, b,..., c$; it is denoted by $(a,b,...,c)$.

As the g.c.d. $(a, b,..., c)$ belongs to the set of linear combinations of $a, b,..., c$ (since it is the smallest element $\gt 0 $ of that set, unless $a, b,..., c$ are all $0$), it can be written in the form $$(a,b,...,c) = ax_0 + by_0 + \cdots +cz_0 $$ where $x_0,y_0,...,z_0$ are all integers.

Theorem III.1. Integers $a,b,...,c$ are mutually relatively prime if and only if the equation $ax + by+ ... +cz=1$ has a solution in integers $x,y,...,z$. In fact, if $(a,b,...,c)= 1$, then, by corollary 1 of theorem II.1, the equation in question has a solution.

Conversely, if it has a solution, then every common divisor $d>0$ of $a,b,...,c$ must divide $1$ and must therefore be $1$.


Beginner like me has complaint that the book is not articulate, nor states examples (nor implores in exercises) about such $m$, for some set $M$, apart from other implicit details as stated below.

Theorem II.1 gets $m$ as "identity" element, for the set $M$. Also, proves it to be the smallest element in the set. Also, shows all elements in the set are multiples of it.

So, $d$ is same as $m$.

Also, $m$ can be $0$, only for empty set $M =\{0\}$.

But, $ax + by +...+ cz = nd$ with $x, y, z, n$ as integers (positive, negative, or zero).

If so, then for positive $n$; $nd$ for $d$ as identity element means that $ax + by +...+ cz = nd \implies n(a'x + b'y +...+ c'z = d)$

But, if $d =$ unit (identity) element in set $M$, then $n$ is never a negative value, as GCD (here, of co-prime values: $a,b,...,c$) is always $1$. So, $n$ cannot be negative. This is in turn directly based on identity element$d$ being non-negative, and for non-empty set as non-zero.

As per author, it is possible in Corollary 1 that if $d=0$, then $n$ can be $ = 0$, or a nonzero value.

But, it is not clear when the linear combination $ax + by +...+ cz = 0$, as for me it is known that linear combination of co-primes is $n.d = n.1$. Else, in linear equalities it is common to see the sum as $=0$. But, it seems quite different to have all integers in set (in complete ordering, I suppose; i.e. no gap from $d=e$ to largest integer in the set $M$) involved in linear combination.

So, want to ask significance of $ax + by +...+ cz = 0$.

The linear combinations are used based on closure wrt addition & subtraction operations in the set $M$.

Theorem III.1 is simpler as is stated with co-prime elements, $a,b,...,c$, with $d=1$.

jiten
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    The author simply forgot to exclude the trivial cases $,M = {0}$ and $,0 = a = b = \ldots,$. If you search more completely you will find that this method of proof is discussed here in many posts, e.g. here and here. – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 11:46
  • @BillDubuque Thanks a lot for the error, and links so close to it. – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 11:49
  • @BillDubuque Also, please indicate if my statement regarding the post stated in the link in OP is correct. – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 11:56
  • Which statement? – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 12:02
  • @BillDubuque It is in the second paragraph of the OP. The link is for post, at: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/483151/424260. – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 12:04
  • @BillDubuque By trivial case of $nd=0$, request proof why all elements $a=b=...=0$. – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 12:15
  • If you are asking if the two statements are equivalent (after excluding ${0})$ then yes, that's true, since if it is closed under subtraction then it is also closed under addition too (being nonempty it comtains $a-a = 0$ so $0 - a = -a$ so $b-(-a) = b+a;,$ this is just the single-step subgroup test). – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 12:16
  • Please state precisely the statement you ask about. – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 12:18
  • @BillDubuque The link for post is asking a similar question taken from book of Beachy and Blair on Abstract algebra, he asks for explanation, that is what I feel is here in OP:

    Theorem 1.1.4. Let $I $ be a nonempty set of integers that is closed under addition and subtraction. Then $I $ either consists of zero alone or else contains a smallest positive element, in which case $I$ consists of all multiples of its smallest positive element.

    – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 12:21
  • I meant not that (for which see my prior comment) but rather the query in your 2nd last comment. – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 12:23
  • @BillDubuque I mean that why it is must that any linear combination of all integers in set $M$, can only be zero if all integers are zero. We encounter linear equalities say, $2x+3y=0$, but am not clear if the example is correct in this context. Might be this lack of clarity is the cause of doubt. Should all coefficients be positive for $a,b,...$? – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 12:25
  • If all $,a_i = 0,$ the so too is their span $,\sum c_i a_i$. These theorems say nothing about such equalities. – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 12:29
  • @BillDubuque But, you have to derive the property that all $a_i=0$ based on the constraints. I mean that need show that if rhs $ =0$, then all integers in the set have to be zero. It might be tempting to use linear algebra, but still span can be zero if coefficients of integers are suitably chosen. – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 12:34
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    It seems you are attempting to apply the quoted theorems to solve the general linear diophantine equation with rhs $ = d$ and you are asking if they apply in the homogeneous case when $d = 0$. See here for how to do that. – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 12:39
  • @BillDubuque so, it is just a trivial case, and am not clear about that. Hence, shifting the topic to homogeneous case of LDE. – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 12:46
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    The general method is already explained in the prior linked answer, see "Proof: Homogeneous solution" which shows how to eliminate one variable in the homogeneous equation to reduce to a non-homogeneous equation in one-fewer variables. – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '21 at 12:56
  • I think your answer at: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/85841/424260 is more relevant. Need jump between seeking an intuitive explanation and need for your advanced approaches to understand that. – jiten Mar 28 '21 at 13:13

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