I have the following equation:
$$\ln \left(\frac{\alpha^2}{\beta^2}\right) = \frac{1}{m \xi_\alpha} + \frac{b\ln(m \xi_\alpha)}{m^2}$$
where $\xi_\alpha := \xi(\alpha^2)$. The objective is to solve for $\xi_\alpha$ given that $\ln (\frac{\alpha^2}{\beta^2}) \gg 1$.
Here is my attempt:
$$ \ln\left(\frac{\alpha^2}{\beta^2}\right) = \frac{1}{m \xi_\alpha} + \frac{b\ln(m \xi_\alpha)}{m^2}$$
Exponentiating both sides, we get,
$$\frac{\alpha^2}{\beta^2} = e^\frac{1}{m\xi_\alpha} (m\xi_\alpha)^\frac{b}{m^2}$$
At this point, I am completely stuck. I am not sure how to use the fact that $\ln (\frac{\alpha^2}{\beta^2}) \gg 1$. I tried reading some materials online and there were some suggestions using iteratively solving the equation, but I am not sure how to proceed. Could someone help me with this?