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Consider $C([a,b])$, the vector space of continuous functions in $[a,b] \subset \mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$. Let be $f \in C([a,b])$, we define $\|\cdot\|_1$ as follows: \begin{equation*} \|f\|_1 = \int_{a}^{b}|f(x)|dx \end{equation*}

I must show that $(C([a,b]), \|\cdot\|_1)$ is not a Banach space.

This is my answer the which one is wrong according to my teacher. Consider the following counterexample. Let $c =2^{-1}(a+b)$ y $f_n:[a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \hspace{.1cm} \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$ with the following association rule and graph: enter image description here

It's clear that $\{f_n\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \subset C([a,b])$. We will show that $\{f_n\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ it's a $||\cdot||_1-Cauchy$ sequence. Let be $\epsilon > 0$ and $N = \displaystyle \left\lceil{ \frac{1}{2 \epsilon}}\right\rceil$, then: \begin{equation*} ||f_n-f_m||_1 = \int_{a}^{b} |f_n(x)-f_m(x)|dx = \left| \frac{1}{2n}-\frac{1}{2m} \right| \leq \max \left\{ \frac{1}{2n}, \frac{1}{2m}\right\} < \epsilon, \hspace{.1cm} \forall n,m \geq N \end{equation*} So the sequence is $||\cdot||_1-Cauchy$, however though this sequence converges to the following limit function, the limit function is clearly discontinuous. Let be $f:[a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$: \begin{equation*} f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{si $x \leq c$}\\ 0 & \text{si $x > c$} \end{cases} \end{equation*} Fixed $\epsilon_1 > 0$ and $N_1 = \left\lceil{\displaystyle\frac{1}{2 \epsilon_1}}\right\rceil$, then: \begin{equation*} ||f_n-f||_1 = \displaystyle\int_{0}^{1} |f_n(x)-f(x)| = \frac{1}{2n} < \epsilon, \hspace{.1cm} \forall n \geq N_1 \end{equation*} $\textbf{Now, the problem is that}$ (according to my teacher) I only have propose a discontinuous function wich is a limit of the sequence, this does not means that do not exits another continuous function wich is also the limit of the sequence. I understand the problem, but nothing comes up to me to solve this.

Tomasz Kania
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    Check this: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/336417/42969. – Martin R Mar 25 '21 at 19:24
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    Can you show the pointwise limit of a sequence in your Banach space is unique if it exists? That would do it, and to me it looks true by considering the real sequences formed by evaluating each term of the sequence at a fixed point. [I may be wrong about this, not being an expert...] – coffeemath Mar 25 '21 at 19:24
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    Hint: Suppose that $f_n$ did converge to a continuous function $f$. Then, since $f$ is continuous, there exists $\delta$ such that if $|x-c|<\delta$, then $|f(x)-f(c)|<1/2$. – Plutoro Mar 25 '21 at 19:25

1 Answers1

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Suppose $f_n \to f \in C[0,1]$ with the $\|\cdot \|_1$ norm.

Let $g$ be $1$ on $[a,c]$ and $0$ on $(c,b]$. It is clear that $f_n \to g$ uniformly on $K_\epsilon = [a,b] \setminus (c-\epsilon, c+\epsilon)$ and that $g$ is continuous on $\{c\}^c$.

Let $\|\cdot \|_{K_\epsilon}$ be the $1$-norm on $K_\epsilon$, then $\|f-g\|_{K_\epsilon} \le \|f-f_n\|_{K_\epsilon} + \|f_n -g\|_{K_\epsilon} \le \|f-f_n\|_1 + \|f_n -g\|_{K_\epsilon}$ from which we see that $f=g$ on $K_\epsilon$ (since both $f,g$ are continuous).

In particular, we must have $f=g$ on $\{c\}^c$ and so $f$ is discontinuous, which is a contradiction.

copper.hat
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