I realize this question has been asked and answered multiple times, but I'm still not understanding the reasoning. For reference, I've read this, this, and this.
Theorem 2.12. Let {}, =1,2,…, be a sequence of countable sets, and put
$$S = \bigcup\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n$$
Then is countable.
Proof. Let every set be arranged in a sequence {}, =1,2,3,…, and consider the infinite array
in which the elements of form the th row. The array contains all elements of . As indicated by the arrows, these elements can be arranged in a sequence
11;21,12;31,22,13;41,32,23,14;…(*)
If any two of the sets have elements in common, these will appear more than once in (∗). Hence there is a subset of the set of all positive integers such that ∼, which shows that is at most countable. Since 1⊂, and 1 is infinite, is infinite, and thus countable. ◼
I understand if there's an injection $F: S\rightarrow \mathbb{N}$, S is countable. I don't understand how utilizing the diagonals leads to such an injection. Since there's 1 element in the first diagonal, 2 in the second, ..., n in the n-th, (n - 1) in the (n + 1)-th, etc., how is it possible to say that since there are n elements at most in any diagonal the set is countable?