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Introduction to Complex Analysis by H. A. Priestley (Revised ed.) shows a diagram (page 40) which is a polygonal path in a set $G$ (link below). Their proof claims we can polygonally pave our way from $z$ to $a$ by using the fact that open discs centred at $z$ enclose a point $w$ such that the line segment $[z,w]\subset D(z;r),r>0$. I am confident in that notion, but maybe it's their diagram which confuses me.

Picture of Diagram seen in Priestley

It displays large line segments paving through the set $G$ which if you were to draw open discs centred from the original point, the open disc is then not contained by $G$. I assume they could have used smaller open discs, therefore, more $w$s to get to $a$.

Any clarification on this topic would help me out a lot. Thank you very much.

2 Answers2

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H. A. Priestley, Introduction to Complex Analysis, Revised Edition (Oxford University Press 1990), p.39f.:

Let $G_1 = \{z \in G \colon\ \text{there exists a polygonal path in } G \text{ with endpoints } a \text{ and } z\}$ and let $G_2 = G \setminus G_1.$ We require $G_1 = G.$ We shall prove that each of $G_1$ and $G_2$ is open. Connectedness of $G$ will then imply that one of these sets is empty. This cannot be $G_1,$ since $a \in G_1.$

We now establish our claim that $G_1$ and $G_2$ are open. For any $z \in G,$ we can find $r$ such that $D(z; r) \subseteq G.$ For each $w \in D(z; r),$ $[z, w] \subseteq G.$ It follows that $z$ can be joined to $a$ by a polygonal path in $G$ if and only if $w$ can be (see Fig. 3.3). Hence, for $k = 1, 2,$ $z \in G_k$ implies $D(z;r) \subseteq G_k.$

The diagram illustrates the implication that if $z \in G_1$ then $w \in G_1.$ A similar diagram could be drawn to illustrate the converse implication that if $w \in G_1$ then $z \in G_1;$ but that would be overkill. Instead, just imagine that the penultimate segment of the polygonal path from $a$ terminates at $w$ rather than $z.$

  • If I were to replicate what the theorem in Priestley says, with a set $G$ and points $a$ and $z$, wouldn't I be drawing line segments $[z,w]\subseteq D(z;r),r>0$ for each $z,w\in G$ (starting at $a$ and finishing at $z$)? – Trivial Guy Mar 24 '21 at 17:33
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    I think perhaps you are puzzled by the fact that the polygonal path in the figure cannot have been constructed by a finite series of applications of the argument concerning $D(z; r).$ Is that correct? I mean, is that what has been puzzling you? – Calum Gilhooley Mar 24 '21 at 17:42
  • Yes! That is exactly correct! Shouldn't the diagram illustrate what it is trying to convey (aside from the fact of $z$ and $w$ can both polygonally paved to $a$)? It has caused me a lot of confusion about if my interpretation of the proof is valid. So, yes, thank you. – Trivial Guy Mar 24 '21 at 17:53
  • If it helps, you could mentally partition each of the large line segments into a number of smaller ones, to each of which the $D(z; r)$ construction does apply, and it just happens that these segments are collinear. [This was not a reply to your second comment; we just posted simultaneously.] – Calum Gilhooley Mar 24 '21 at 17:54
  • Yes I thought the same also. But in general, we use the fact that each line segment in each subset open disc is transitively in $G$ can't we? – Trivial Guy Mar 24 '21 at 17:56
  • If I understand you correctly, then yes: $[z, w] \subseteq D(z; r) \subseteq G.$ [I'm still thinking about the question in your second comment.] – Calum Gilhooley Mar 24 '21 at 18:01
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I assume the statement you're after really is that $G$ open and connected implies $G$ path-connected which, in turn, implies points in $G$ can, in fact, be connected by polygonal paths.

The first implication is simply the fact that $G$ is locally path-connected (connected and locally path-connected spaces are, necessarily, path-connected).

To get the second implication, pick some path $\gamma$ from $z$ to $a$. Since $\gamma$ is compact and $\partial G$ is closed, there exists some $\varepsilon>0$ such that $d(\gamma,\partial G)>\varepsilon$. Accordingly, $(D(x,\varepsilon))_{x\in \gamma}$ is an open cover of $\gamma$ in $G$ and we can apply compactness to get that $z,x_1,...,x_n,a$ such that $(D(x_j,\varepsilon))_{1\leq j \leq n}$ forms a cover of $\gamma$ in $G$. We may, without loss of generality, assume that the ordering of the $x_j$ is such that $D(x_j,\varepsilon)\cap D(x_{j+1},\varepsilon)\neq \emptyset$ for every $j$, $z\in D(x_1,\varepsilon)$ and such that $a\in D(x_n,\varepsilon)$. Note that if our initial path was poorly chosen, this might imply that the $x_j$'s are non-distinct but that doesn't matter for the argument.

At this point, however, it's clear that there is a straight line from $z$ to $x_1$ in $G$, a straight line of $a$ to $x_n$ in $G$ and that there is a polygonal path in $G$ consisting of two line segments between $x_j$ and $x_{j+1}$ for every $j$. Concatenating these paths yields a polygonal path between $z$ and $a$.

  • Yes, that is what I am looking for. I haven't taken metric spaces so I am not too familiar with the notation you use. They use the 'is enclosed by an open disc' logic to convince that it is path-connected, but the diagram leaves me unsatisfied. I can see the use of two consecutive open balls having a non-empty intersection, so my question to you is, has the proof in Priestley used the same logic? If I were to construct a diagram showing the open discs, these would overlap wouldn't they? I just need to verify it fully to myself to be certain. Thank you very much :) – Trivial Guy Mar 24 '21 at 13:48
  • Surely, they need to already know that $G$ is connected. That $G$ is then path-connected (due to local path-connectedness) is a basic exercise in point-set topology. I've no clue what "logic" the proof of Priestly uses. If what you wrote above is a quote and literally all they write on the matter, then it's just super vague. What I've written is how I'd prove the paving lemma. But note that the interest of the result is proving that you can connect points by polygonal paths. Not just that you can connect points by paths. – WoolierThanThou Mar 24 '21 at 13:58
  • Yes, they aim to show that $G$ is a region (hence connected) if and only if $G$ is polygonally connected, so you are correct. My post is concerned with the image of the diagram seen in the book. If you were to look at it, you would see that the line segments seem too large for $G$ (as the line segments drawn should indicate an open disc with a radius larger than it can fit inside $G$ from the point it comes from). – Trivial Guy Mar 24 '21 at 15:22