There is a particular "proof structure" I routinely observe throughout Michael Spivak's Calculus that I hoped I could get some commentary on (I will provide the most recently encountered example shortly).
Such questions will be framed as "Prove $P$", and then Spivak's solutions proceed as follows:
Assume $P$ is true.
Algebraic manipulation
Arrive at a previously proven statement $Q$.
Claim $\square$
Here is one such example:
Prove that $\sqrt{(x_1+y_1)^2+(x_2+y_2)^2} \leq \sqrt{x_1^{\ \ \ 2}+x_2^{\ \ \ 2}} + \sqrt{y_1^{\ \ \ 2}+y_2^{\ \ \ 2}}$
The "$Q$" that we have in our back pocket is the Schwarz inequality, which reads as:
$$x_1y_1+x_2y_2 \leq \sqrt{x_1^{\ \ \ 2}+x_2^{\ \ \ 2}}\sqrt{y_1^{\ \ \ 2}+y_2^{\ \ \ 2}}$$
Here is Spivak's solution (verbatim):
This inequality is equivalent to the squared inequality, $$(x_1+y_1)^2+(x_2+y_2)^2 \leq (x_1^{\ \ \ 2}+x_2^{\ \ \ 2})+ (y_1^{\ \ \ 2}+y_2^{\ \ \ 2})+2\sqrt{x_1^{\ \ \ 2}+x_2^{\ \ \ 2}}\sqrt{y_1^{\ \ \ 2}+y_2^{\ \ \ 2}}$$ which is easily seen to be equivalent to the Schwarz inequality
My major confusion with this proof strategy is that I view it as a proof of the implication $P \rightarrow Q$. If I am keen on proving $P$, certainly I am trying to prove $Q \rightarrow P$, right?
Is Spivak glossing over the fact that in order to work backwards (i.e. to start from the Schwarz inequality and arrive at our initial $P$ statement), we must necessarily be in an algebraic field?
I ask this question because it appears as though one of the unspoken assumptions here by Spivak is that we can casually "reverse" all of the algebraic manipulations that allowed us to traverse from $P$ to $Q$, so that we can then go from $Q$ to $P$.
Is this the correct interpretation?
I believe another relevant assumed-to-be-true statement that must be in play for the reversed $Q \rightarrow P$ direction (at least for this particular example) is that $$x,y \gt 0 \land x^2 \geq y^2 \rightarrow x \geq y$$