Lusin's theorem states that an almost-everywhere finite function is measurable if and only if it is a continuous function on nearly all its domain. However, Dirichlet function seems to be a counterexample.
The dirichlet function on the interval $[0,1]$ is defined as $D(x)=\left\{\begin{align}&0,x\in[0,1]\cap\mathbb Q\\&1,x\in\mathbb [0,1]\setminus \mathbb Q\end{align}\right.$. Since both $[0,1]\cap\mathbb Q$ and $[0,1]\setminus \mathbb Q$ are measurable, $D(x)$ is measurable.
However, it is well-known that $D(x)$ is nowhere continuous on $[0,1]$. I wonder where such a paradox comes from.