I was wondering what the evaluation of the following summation is for any $|a|>0$ $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n-a)^2}.$$ Any help or a direction to a reference would be appreciated. There is a related post, but I am unsure of its validity.
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Why are you unsure of its validity? – Clement C. Feb 25 '21 at 21:35
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@ClementC. Hi, thank you. This since the closed form was mentioned without reference. A reference if possible would be appreciated. – spaceman Feb 25 '21 at 21:39
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1You may want to look at this one (it seems detailed enough): https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3057017/75808 – Clement C. Feb 25 '21 at 21:43
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@ClementC. Thank you very much! That's much appreciated – spaceman Feb 25 '21 at 22:11
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2a cannot be an integer! – herb steinberg Feb 25 '21 at 22:30